Fcbulka Advertising Pvt Ltd vs Assistant Commissioner Of Income Tax … on 7 May, 2025

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Bombay High Court

Fcbulka Advertising Pvt Ltd vs Assistant Commissioner Of Income Tax … on 7 May, 2025

Author: M.S. Sonak

Bench: M.S. Sonak

  SAYYED Digitally
            by SAYYED
                     signed

  SAEED SAEED
2025:BHC-OS:7667-DBALI
            AHMED ALI
  ALI       Date:                                            FINAL1.WP.3442.22(J)-2.DOCX
  AHMED 2025.05.07
            15:09:48
  ALI       +0530
                                                                                           Revati


                            IN THE HIGH COURT OF JUDICATURE AT BOMBAY
                                ORDINARY ORIGINAL CIVIL JURISDICTION
                                         WRIT PETITION NO.3442 OF 2022
                     Fcbulka Advertising Pvt Ltd.                  ... Petitioner
                     4th Floor Nirmal, Nariman Point,
                     Mumbai - 400 021.
                                   Versus
                     1.    Assistant Commissioner of Income ... Respondents
                           Tax Circle 16(1)
                           Aayakar Bhavan, Maharishi Karve
                           Road, Mumbai 400 020
                     2.    Principal Commissioner of Income
                           Tax-8
                           Aayakar Bhavan, Maharishi Karve
                           Road, Mumbai 400 020
                     3.    Union of India
                           through the Secretary,
                           Department of Revenue, Ministry
                           Of Finance, 2nd Floor, Aayakar
                           Bhavan, M.K.Marg,Mumbai 400020

                     ___________________________________________________
                     Mr J. D. Mistri, Senior Advocate a/w Mr Gautam Thakkar and
                     Mr Sameer Dalal, for Petitioner.
                     Mr Tejinder Singh, Special Counsel a/w Mr Suresh Kumar, for
                     Respondents/Revenue.
                     ______________________________________________________
                                            CORAM : M.S. Sonak &
                                                       Jitendra Jain, JJ.
                                       RESERVED ON:  23 April 2025
                                     PRONOUNCED ON : 7 May 2025
                     Judgment (Per Jitendra Jain, J.):-
                     1.   Rule. By consent, and since the pleadings are complete,
                     this petition was taken for a final hearing at the admission
                     stage itself.

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 2.      By this petition under Article 226 of the Constitution of
 India, the Petitioner is challenging the communication dated
 16 June 2022 issued by Respondent No.1, which refused the
 Petitioner's request to implement the communication dated
 29 November 2018 relating to the refund. The present
 petition pertains to assessment year (AY) 2018-2019.

         Brief facts: -

 (i) The Petitioner engages in advertising and marketing
       communications in India and is a wholly owned
       subsidiary of Advertisement and Communication Services
       (Mauritius) Limited (ACSL Mauritius). Additionally, the
       Petitioner serves as the holding company of FCB
       Interface Communications Private Limited, which is
       incorporated in India.

 (ii) During the previous year relevant to the AY 2018-2019,
       Petitioner declared and paid a dividend of Rs .
       205,17,52,200/- to its shareholder ACSL Mauritius. The
       Petitioner paid Dividend Distribution Tax (DDT) of Rs.
       27,47,97,292/- under Section 115-O of the Income Tax
       Act, 1961 (the Act) at an effective rate of 20.358%.

 (iii) Subsequently, the Petitioner claims to have realized that
       DDT paid at 20.358% was erroneous since, as per Article
       10(2) of the Treaty between India and Mauritius, they
       should have paid tax @ 5% only.

 (iv) Therefore, on 10 October 2018, claim for refund of
       excess DDT was made by a letter addressed to


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       Respondent No.1. In the said letter, the Petitioner
       submitted that they were liable to pay DDT as per India-
       Mauritius Tax Treaty @ 5% only, however, they have paid
       DDT @ 20.358% and, therefore, they are entitled to
       claim refund of the excess DDT of Rs.20,73,06,062/-.
       The Petitioner also stated that Form ITR-VI does not have
       any provision for a claim of refund of excess DDT;
       therefore, the claim is made by way of said letter. The
       Petitioner also requested the opportunity for a hearing in
       the said letter.

 (v) On 29 November 2018, Respondent No.1 replied to the
       Petitioner's aforesaid refund claim. The claim for grant of
       refund in the present petition is based on the said letter
       and, therefore, for convenience, is reproduced herein: -




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 (vi) Thereafter, the Petitioner vide various letters requested
        and reminded Respondent No.1 to grant the refund
        along with interest based on the above communication
        dated 29 November 2018. However, there was no reply
        to these letters.

 (vii) However, on 16 June 2022, Respondent No.1 replied to
        the aforesaid request of the Petitioner and rejected the
        claim of the refund on the ground that reply dated 29
        November 2018, based on which the refund is requested,
        is not a statutory order passed under the relevant Section
        of the IT Act and, therefore, effect cannot be given to
        such communication of 29 November 2018. It further
        states that no section is mentioned in the communication
        dated 29 November 2018 under which the same is
        passed, and no computation sheet is attached.

 (viii) The said communication of 16 June 2022, which is
        impugned in              the present petition, requested the
        Petitioner to file rectification application under Section
        154 of the IT Act specifying the order which is to be
        rectified for arriving at the refund or to claim the refund
        under Section 237 of the IT Act along with supporting
        documents.

 (ix)     For      the         sake    of   convenience,       the      impugned
        communication                 dated 16 June 2022 is scanned
        hereunder: -




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 3.      Being aggrieved by the communication dated 16 June
 2022, the Petitioner has instituted the present petition
 challenging its correctness and further seeking direction to
 the Respondents to grant a refund in terms of the
 communication dated 29 November 2018, along with
 interest.

         Submissions of the Petitioner:-

 4.      Mr. Mistri, learned senior counsel for the Petitioner,
 submitted that the communication dated 29 November 2018
 constitutes satisfaction of Respondent No.1 in terms of
 Section 237 of the IT Act, in which Respondent No.1 has
 determined the refund of Rs. 20,73,06,062/-. He submits that
 this communication is an order determining the refund. The
 communication dated 29 November 2018 still holds the field
 since it is neither withdrawn nor revised by any authority. He

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 challenges the communication dated 16 June 2022 on the
 ground that no statutory orders are required for determining
 refund under Section 237 of the IT Act. He strongly refuted
 the grounds mentioned in the impugned communication for
 denying the implementation of the communication dated 29
 November 2018. He submitted that Respondent No.1 cannot
 direct the Petitioner to make an application under Section
 154 of the IT Act for rectification of the letter dated 29
 November 2018. He submitted that the letter dated 10
 October 2018 is an application for Section 237 of the IT Act
 or, alternatively, Article 265 of the Constitution of India.

 5.      Mr. Mistri also submitted that the Petitioner is entitled
 to the refund since under the Treaty between India and
 Mauritius, the Petitioner was required to pay DDT @ 5% only
 and not @ 20.358%. He submitted that the submission on
 merits is being made only in response to the Respondents'
 reply during the hearing. He, however, maintains that it is too
 late for the revenue to challenge the entitlement of the
 Petitioner after having determined the refund by letter dated
 29 November 2018. He submitted that the revenue today
 cannot contend in the teeth of the refund determination on
 29 November 2018 that the Petitioner is not entitled to claim
 the refund.

 6.      Mr. Mistri also submitted that filing the return of
 income is not required for DDT refunds, and the Petitioner
 specifically brought this to the attention of Respondent No.1
 while claiming a refund of excess DDT. In any case, the claim

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 made by a letter dated 10 October 2018 must be treated as an
 application under Section 237 of the IT Act.

 7.      The learned senior counsel submitted that the prayer
 for refund is based on Article 265 of the Constitution of India
 and the communication dated 29 November 2018. He
 submitted that the amount is being retained without any
 authority of law and therefore seeks appropriate relief in the
 present petition. He further submitted that the Respondents
 are not justified in the present petition to deny the refund
 based on the India-Mauritius Tax Treaty. He submitted that
 the grounds raised in the reply did not constitute the basis of
 the communication dated 16 June 2022, which is impugned
 in the present proceedings. He further submitted that the
 issue on the merits is pending before various forums in the
 case of various other assesses. Therefore, he submitted that it
 would not be appropriate for this Court to adjudicate the
 issue on the merits, more so when the same does not
 constitute the basis of the impugned letter dated 16 June
 2022. Mr. Mistri, learned senior counsel, relied upon the
 decision of the Gujarat High Court in the case of Torrent (P.)
 Ltd. Vs Commissioner of Income-tax1

         Submissions of the Respondents:-

 8.      Mr. Singh learned special counsel for the Respondents
 vehemently opposed the petition and submitted that sine-qua-
 non for claiming a refund is that the assessee should file its
 return and make a claim in the said returns. He relied upon
 1
         (2013) 35 taxmann.com 300 (Gujarat)


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 Section 239 read with Rule 41 to support this submission. He
 submitted that the Petitioner in their return of income did not
 make any claim for the refund of the DDT.                       He further
 submitted that the Petitioner did not protest the intimation
 under Section 143(1) and assessment order under Section
 143(3) of the IT Act by raising a plea that the Respondents
 have not granted the refund of DDT based on the
 communication dated 29 November 2018. Mr. Singh further
 placed reliance on Article 10 of the India-Mauritius Tax Treaty
 and Commentaries to submit that the Petitioners are not
 entitled to the refund of the excess DDT by taking recourse to
 the Treaty.

 9.      Mr Singh placed reliance on the decision of Godrej &
 Boyce Mfg. Co. Ltd. vs DCIT2 in support of his submissions on
 the Petitioner's disentitlement to claim such a refund. Mr.
 Singh also relied upon the decision of the Hon'ble Supreme
 Court in the case of Union of India Vs Azadi Bachao Andolan 3
 and Karnataka High Court's decision in the case of CIT Vs
 R.M. Muthaiah4. Mr. Singh also placed reliance on the
 Commentaries on the Interpretation of the Treaty and
 submitted that the Petitioners are not entitled to claim a
 refund of the DDT. Mr. Singh also relied upon the decision of
 this Court in the case of Tata Communications Transformation
 Services Ltd. Vs Assistant Commissioner of Income-tax5 and

 2
         (2010) 194 taxman 203 (Bombay)
 3
         (2003) 132 Taxman 373 (SC)
 4
         (1993) 202 ITR 508 (KAR)
 5
         (2022) 137 taxmann.com 2 (Bombay)


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 submitted that since the claim is not made in the return as
 per the requirement of Section 239 of the IT Act, the
 Petitioner is not entitled to the refund of the DDT.

 10.     Mr Singh further submitted that the communication
 dated 29 November 2018 is not an order but a reply to the
 refund application dated 10 October 2018 filed by the
 Petitioner. He submitted that the letter states that the refund
 is due upon preliminary verification and will be taken up for
 further processing. He submitted that the letter is more like
 an opinion and not a conclusive refund determination. He
 defended the Respondents' action and prayed for the
 petition's dismissal.

 11.     We have heard the learned counsel for the Petitioner
 and Respondents and, with their assistance, have perused the
 documents that were brought to our attention. Other than
 what is recorded above, no other submissions have been
 made by the parties.

         Analysis and Conclusion: -

 12.     Based on the rival contentions and pleadings, broadly
 the following three issues arise for determination in this
 Petition: -

 (i) The validity of the impugned communication dated 16
 June 2022;

 (ii) The legal status of the communication dated 29
 November 2018; and



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 (iii) Whether a case is made out for the issue of a writ of
 mandamus to the Respondents for the grant of a refund of Rs.
 20,73,06,062/- solely based on the communication dated 29
 November 2018?

 13.           The impugned communication dated 16 June 2022
 rejects the Petitioner's claim for refund inter alia on the
 ground that previous communication dated 29 November
 2018 is not a statutory order of refund made under any of the
 provisions of the IT Act but it is just the expression of the
 tentative opinion in response to Petitioner's application for
 refund which was not even made in the statutory form or
 after complying the statutory procedures under Sections 237
 and 239 of the IT Act. This impugned communication rejects
 the     refund        claim      on     the    ground     that      the      earlier
 communication dated 29 November 2018 was not some order
 under       Sections          143(3)/154/250/254/143(1),               etc.     The
 impugned            communication             also    reasons         that       the
 communication dated 29 November 2018 did not specify the
 Sections under which it was issued, nor was any computation
 sheet annexed thereto. The impugned communication finally
 directs the Petitioner to file a rectification application under
 Section 154 or to take out proceedings under Section 237 of
 the IT Act, claiming a refund.

 14.     Apart from the above reasons reflected in the impugned
 communication dated 16 June 2022, Mr. Tejinder Singh urged
 that refund was rejected because the Petitioner failed to file a
 return of income and claim such refund, which according to

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 him, was the only mode allowable under Section 237 read
 with Sections 237 and 239 read with Rule 41 of the Income
 Tax Rules. He submitted that even on merits, the Petitioner
 was not entitled to any refund under the Double Tax
 Avoidance Agreement between India and Mauritius. He
 emphasised Article 10 of the India-Mauritius Tax Treaty and
 relied on the decisions of Godrej & Boyce Mfg. Co. Ltd.
 (supra) and Azadi Bachao Andolan (supra) in support of his
 contentions.

 15.     At the outset, we are unsure whether it is open to the
 Revenue or Mr. Singh to urge reasons or grounds other than
 those reflected in the impugned communication dated 16
 June 2022 to support the said impugned communication.
 Normally, the validity of such communications would have to
 be tested on the grounds or reasons reflected therein and not
 by grounds added or supplemented through affidavits or oral
 contentions          when     a   challenge       is   raised        to     such
 communications.

 16.     We state our uncertainty because an argument was
 made on behalf of the revenue that even the impugned
 communication dated 16 June 2022 may not be a statutory
 order rejecting the Petitioner's claim for refund. Furthermore,
 the impugned communication is more of a response to the
 Petitioner's reminders concerning the implementation of the
 communication dated 29 November 2019. Mr. Mistri,
 however, maintained that the impugned communication was



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 a statutory order and that the reasons provided could not be
 supplemented when a challenge was presented against it.

 17.     In any event, upon considering the matter from the two
 different perspectives presented before us, for reasons
 discussed later, we are satisfied that the Petitioner's refund
 claim cannot be said to have been finally rejected or the
 Respondents cannot finally reject the Petitioner's refund claim
 based on the grounds in the impugned communication dated
 16 June 2022 the grounds attempted to be supplemented
 later. In either event, the impugned communication is
 vulnerable and warrants interference.

 18.     Firstly, the principles of natural justice and fair play
 were not complied with before the issuance of the impugned
 communication dated 16 June 2022. The petitioner was not
 heard prior to the issuance of the impugned communication
 dated 16 June 2022. The tentative reasons why the
 respondents believed that no refund was due to the petitioner
 were not disclosed to her. The petitioner was not given an
 effective opportunity to address these tentative grounds or
 reasons. This constitutes a valid basis for setting aside the
 impugned communication dated 16 June 2022.

 19.     Secondly, nothing in the impugned communication
 suggests that the rejection was based on the Respondents'
 belief that no refund was due and payable to the Petitioner.
 As discussed later in the context of the communication dated
 29 November 2018, there is nothing conclusive regarding the



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 Petitioner's entitlement to such a refund after the authority
 verified the Petitioner's status regarding the claim made and
 the provisions of the treaty.

 20.     The impugned communication mainly states that the
 communication dated 29 November 2019 was not a statutory
 order; therefore, based on the same, any claim for refund
 cannot be allowed. This means that even the impugned
 communication does not examine the Petitioner's claim for
 refund on merits and takes any stand that the petitioner was
 dis-entitled to a refund on merits.

 21.     Thus, the impugned communication, while rejecting the
 Petitioner's contention that the issue of refund stood
 concluded by the communication dated 29 November 2018,
 does not independently decide one way or the other on the
 merits of the Petitioner's claim for refund. Even the
 supplemented grounds urged in the revenue's affidavit or by
 Mr. Singh during the arguments mainly concern alleged non-
 compliance with procedural requirements or the non-citation
 of statutory provisions. But there is no examination of the
 refund claim on merits by adverting to the transaction and
 the corresponding provisions of the treaty by which they were
 governed.

 22.     At this stage, considering the order we propose to make,
 we refrain from delving deeply into contentious issues
 affecting the merits or demerits of the refund claim. Such
 issues, according to us, must initially be examined by the fact-



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 finding authorities under the IT Act and not this Court
 exercising judicial review. When exercising powers of judicial
 review, this Court is mainly concerned with the decision-
 making process rather than the decision itself.

 23.     Therefore, examining the matter from the above
 perspectives, and for the reasons discussed above, we are
 satisfied that the impugned communication dated 16 June
 2022 must be set aside. We answer the first issue accordingly.

 24.     The next issue that needs consideration concerns the
 legal status of the communication dated 29 November 2018.

 25.       Admittedly, on a perusal of the communication dated
 29 November 2018, there is no mention of any Section under
 which it was issued. However, merely because there is no
 reference to the Section under which the said communication
 was issued cannot be reason enough to conclude that it is not
 a statutory order. The reference to a section or provision is
 also inconclusive on such an issue. Neither did the Petitioner
 quote any specific section, article or legal provision when
 applying for a refund, nor does the communication dated 29
 November 2018 quote any in response.

 26.     Mr. Mistri contended that the Petitioner's application
 seeking a refund was not required to be made in any specified
 format. He reasoned that under Article 265 of the
 Constitution, no tax could be levied without the authority of
 law. Therefore, if the Petitioner had paid tax that was not due
 and payable, the retention of such amount would amount to a


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 levy, collection, or retention of tax without the authority of
 law. He submitted that the right to secure the refund of such
 tax, which the Revenue was not entitled to retain, could never
 be fettered by some procedural requirements. He submitted
 that there was no requirement to file a return of income
 under such circumstances. By reference to the prescribed
 forms, he submitted that there was no provision in the forms
 to seek a refund in the situation in which the Petitioner was
 placed.

 27.     Since both the Counsel advanced arguments on the
 provisions in Sections 237, 240 and 246 (A)(1)(i) of the IT
 Act in the context of the communication dated 29 November
 2018, we refer to them:

                 "237. If any person satisfies the [Assessing] Officer
             that the amount of tax paid by him or on his behalf or
             treated as paid by him or on his behalf for any
             assessment year exceeds the amount with which he is
             properly chargeable under this Act for that year, he
             shall be entitled to a refund of the excess.
                 240. Where, as a result of any order passed in
             appeal or other proceedings under this Act, refund of
             any amount becomes due to the assessee, the Assessing
             Officer shall, except as otherwise provided in this Act,
             refund the amount to the assessee without his having
             to make any claim in that behalf.
             Provided that where, by the order aforesaid-
             a) An assessment is set aside or cancelled and an
             order of fresh assessment is directed to be made, the
             refund, if any, shall become due only on the making of
             such fresh assessment;
             b) the assessment is annulled, the refund shall become
             due only of the amount, if any, of the tax paid in excess
             of the tax chargeable on the total income returned by
             the assessee.



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             246A. (1) Any assessee [or any deductor] [or any
             collector] aggrieved by any of the following orders
             (whether made before or after the appointed day) may
             appeal to the Commissioner (Appeals) against -
             ......
             (i) an order made under section 237;"


 28.       Mr Mistri would elevate the communication dated 29
 November 2018 to the status of a statutory order recording
 the AO's satisfaction under section 237, stating that the
 refund was conclusively due to the Petitioner, while Mr Singh
 refutes this altogether.

 29.     Section 237 of the IT Act provides that if a person
 "satisfies" the Assessing Officer that the amount of tax paid by
 him exceeds the amount with which he is properly chargeable
 under this Act for that year, he shall be entitled to a refund of
 the excess. In the instant case, the Petitioner made the claim
 for the refund of DDT on 10 October 2018, and it was
 specifically stated that such a claim is made because there is
 no provision in Form ITR-VI to claim a refund of DDT.
 Respondents have neither disputed the non-provision in the
 ITR form to claim a refund of DDT till the filing of the reply
 to this petition, nor is it the basis which can be found in the
 impugned communication dated 16 June 2022.

 30.      Section 237 of the IT Act requires "satisfaction" of the
 Assessing Officer that the amount paid is more than what is
 chargeable under the Act and, therefore, the person is
 entitled to a refund of the excess. Such an important
 "satisfaction" must be an unequivocal and final determination


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 after proper adjudication on the application made by an
 assessee for the refund. Furthermore, such "satisfaction" must
 be in writing by way of an order in which the Assessing
 Officer must give his reasons for either accepting or rejecting
 the refund claim. This is necessary because there should be
 no ambiguity on whether the AO was passing some statutory
 order capable of legal consequences or was merely expressing
 his tentative opinion or responding to the refund claim
 application.

 31.     We say that such satisfaction must be formally
 expressed because neither party should be kept guessing or
 be prejudiced in resorting to the remedies that the law
 provides against such determination. For instance, Section
 246A of the IT Act provides for appealable orders before the
 Commissioner (Appeals) and Section 246A (1)(i) of the IT
 Act refers to an order made under Section 237 of the IT Act
 as an appealable order.

 32.     Therefore, since the adjudication/ determination of the
 entitlement under Section 237 of the IT Act is an appealable
 order, it follows that there must be a written communication
 in which there is a final determination of the entitlement or
 disentitlement supported by reasoning so that the appellate
 authority can test it. Therefore, in our view, there must be an
 "order" under Section 237 of the IT Act. Such an order must
 be a conclusive and final determination of the entitlement or
 disentitlement to a refund of the excess amount paid. The
 emphasis need not be on the form or citation of the relevant

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 legal provision. But the essential attributes of conclusiveness
 must be reflected. The parties must know that a formal
 determination of the refund claim was being considered and
 dealt with, so that all aspects could be pointed out and
 considered. In this case, the order at least tentatively supports
 the Assessee, but the shoe could as well be on the other foot
 on some other occasion. On perusal of the communication
 dated       29     November      2018      and    on     considering         the
 circumstances in which it was made, we find it challenging to
 elevate it to the status of a statutory order recording the
 satisfaction contemplated by Section 237 of the IT Act.

 33.     Article 265 of the Constitution of India also provides
 that no tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of
 law.      The       phrase    "authority     of   law"      would         mean
 liability/entitlement as per the Act. This would contemplate
 that before a person can be entitled to a refund, the Assessing
 Officer must satisfy that such an entitlement is in accordance
 with the provisions of the IT Act, and there must be a final
 determination of the correctness of the claim for refund.
 Based upon an inconclusive or tentative opinion of an AO, no
 breach of Article 265 can be alleged or established.

 34.       The communication dated 29 November 2018 in the
 first paragraph states that the claim of refund has been
 considered by Respondent No.1. In paragraph 2, the details of
 the dividend paid and received are stated. In paragraph 3,
 Respondent No.1 records that the Petitioner has made a claim
 that dividend income paid to ACSL Mauritius "should be

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 circumscribed @ 5% as per Article 10 of the India-Mauritius
 Tax Treaty" and such a claim has been examined and found
 correct. However, after stating so, Respondent No.1 has
 qualified by stating that the refund "due" is on "preliminary
 verification determined at Rs . 20,73,06,062/-" and further
 the refund would be taken up for "processing" and issued
 after adjustment of past demands, if any. This is hardly
 conclusive.

 35.       If the communication dated 29 November 2018 is an
 order, it being like a preliminary, prima facie, or interlocutory
 order and not a final order, the Petitioner cannot base their
 claim on this communication to allege breach of Article 265
 of the Constitution. The communication dated 29 November
 2018 is based on preliminary verification and is subject to
 processing, and therefore, it is in the nature of a
 preliminary/prima facie/interlocutory order. Respondent No.1
 should and ought to have passed a final order so that there
 would be no ambiguity on the issue, and such a
 determination would be capable of legal consequences,
 including resort to remedies under the law. Article 265 cannot
 be invoked relying almost entirely on such communication,
 which is based on preliminary verification and further
 processing.

 36.     An "order" to be treated as such must decide matters
 affecting the valuable rights of an Assessee and should satisfy
 the requirement of finality, which is absent in the
 communication             dated   29    November      2018.        The      said

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 communication dated 29 November 2018 is not a command
 or direction authoritatively given for the grant of a refund. An
 order based on which a claim for refund is made should
 conclusively find that the refund is "due," thereby putting the
 issue of entitlement to rest. Suppose the claim relies entirely
 on a document based on preliminary verification and further
 processing. In that case, it cannot be said that the refund is
 due to such a claimant, and it is being withheld in breach of
 Article 265 of the Constitution of India.

 37.       In our view, the communication dated 29 November
 2018 cannot be read by picking up one sentence in isolation,
 but would have to be read in its entirety, not ignoring the
 context. On a holistic reading of the entire communication
 dated 29 November 2018, what appears to have been said by
 Respondent No.1 is that the determination of refund is based
 on preliminary verification and is subject to further
 processing. The communication dated 29 November 2018
 appears to be akin to an interlocutory/ preliminary order
 wherein a prima facie view is expressed by Respondent No.1
 on the issue of refund. However, the communication dated 29
 November 2018 cannot be treated as a final and conclusive
 determination of the entitlement of the Petitioner to the
 refund. This is because Respondent No.1 states that on
 preliminary verification, the refund is determined at Rs .
 20,73,06,062/-, and further it states that the same would be
 taken up for processing.




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 38.     The sentence "the claim has been examined and found
 correct" cannot be read in isolation de hors the subsequent
 statement, which states that the refund due on preliminary
 verification is determined at Rs . 20,73,06,062/- and the
 same would be taken up for processing.

 39.     Communication dated 29 November 2018 should have
 been followed up by Respondent No.1 by issuing a final and
 conclusive order. In this instance, Respondent No.1 has not
 taken any steps after the communication dated 29 November
 2018 to verify the refund claim. The delay on the part of
 Respondent No.1 in carrying out the verification and passing
 a final and conclusive determination through an order cannot
 be attributed to the Petitioner. However, because such an
 exercise was not performed by Respondent No.1, the
 communication dated 29 November 2018 cannot be regarded
 as a final determination culminating in an order as
 contemplated under Section 237 read with 246a of the IT
 Act. If, upon final determination, a refund is found
 conclusively due, surely interest can be awarded to the
 Petitioner.

 40.     Section 237 of the IT Act refers to the phrase "satisfied".
 The phrase satisfaction means fully and conclusively satisfied
 and not a prima facie satisfaction. On a reading of
 communication dated 29 November 2018, it cannot be said
 that Respondent No.1-Assessing Officer was fully satisfied
 with the entitlement of the Petitioner to the refund. This is so
 because the said communication specifically states that it is

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 based on preliminary verification and is subject to further
 processing. Therefore, in our view, the communication dated
 29 November 2018 cannot be treated as meaning that the
 Assessing Officer is satisfied as contemplated under Section
 237 of the IT Act to the entitlement of the refund.
 Furthermore, since it is in the form of interlocutory/
 preliminary/prima-facie       communication,        the      same       also
 cannot be considered an "order". The reading of the
 communication dated 29 November 2018 would only mean
 that prima facie, Respondent No.1 found the claim to be
 correct on preliminary verification.

 41.     There is no dispute that Respondent No.1 has the
 authority to pass a final order granting a refund. This would
 encompass preliminary, or prima facie, orders, and such
 orders are subject to verification and statutory limitations.
 The initial or prima facie orders are provisional and tentative
 but do not constitute final adjudication and can be modified
 upon detailed examination. This communication, dated 29
 November 2018, cannot be construed as a final adjudication
 order accepting the Petitioner's plea for the refund claim.

 42.      In our view, therefore, since the communication dated
 29 November 2018 does not specify conclusively the
 entitlement of the Petitioner to the refund claim, it cannot be
 considered as a final determination culminating in a final
 "order" under Section 237 of the IT Act admitting the
 entitlement to a refund of the excess DDT. However, we
 disagree with the reasoning in the impugned communication

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 dated 16 June 2022 which states that since there is no
 mention of the Section in the communication dated 29
 November 2018, the same does not constitute an order. Mere
 non-mentioning of any section would not mean that a
 communication finally determining the rights and liabilities of
 an Assessee cannot be treated as an order. However, there is
 no final determination in the instant case, and therefore, the
 essential attribute of a conclusive order is missing.

 43.     We agree with Mr. Mistri, learned counsel for the
 Petitioner, that the issue of whether DDT is covered by the
 provisions of the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement is
 pending in the cases of other Assessee before various forums
 across the country, including this Court. Therefore, it would
 not be appropriate for us to delve into this issue for the first
 time and embark upon deciding the issues of eligibility or
 entitlement to a refund under the treaty for the first time.

 44.     We have not dealt with case laws relied upon by both
 parties since, in the present factual scenario, keeping in mind
 the controversy before us and our view, they are not
 applicable. The case laws mainly relate to the merits of the
 entitlement to a refund, which is an issue we are not
 presently deciding on.

 45.     The        second     issue    concerning      the       status       of
 communication dated 29 November is decided in the above
 terms. The said communication cannot be regarded or




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 elevated to the status of some statutory order conclusively or
 finally determining the issue of refund entitlement.

 46.      Finally, the question is whether the Petitioner has made
 out a case for the issue of a writ of mandamus for the grant of
 a refund of Rs. 20,73,06,062/- solely based on the
 communication dated 29 November 2018.

 47.     Having regard to the legal status of the communication
 dated       29     November   2018,     obviously,    based       on     the
 communication dated 29 November 2018, no mandamus can
 be immediately issued directing refund of the amount of Rs .
 20,73,06,062/-. Some Competent Authority would have to
 conclusively determine issues of eligibility and entitlement for
 refund, examine the merits of the contention based upon
 which the refund is applied, and pass an appropriate order on
 the refund issue. Such an order will no doubt have to be
 made after giving the Petitioner full opportunity and
 considering all relevant material, including the transactions
 and the treaty's provisions. Since in this case, there is no final
 determination that refund was indeed due and payable to the
 Petitioner, no case is made out for the issue of writ of
 mandamus to direct the Respondents to refund the amount of
 Rs . 20,73,06,062/- to the Petitioner based solely on the
 communication dated 29 November 2018.

 48.     Though, for reasons discussed earlier, we are inclined to
 quash and set aside the impugned communication dated 16
 June 2022, a writ of mandamus cannot issue as a corollary to



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 such quashing. The quashing of the impugned communication
 dated 16 June 2022 does not revive the communication dated
 29 November 2018 or in any event does not confer upon the
 communication dated 29 November 2018 some statutory
 character of a refund order or some communication finally
 determining that refund of Rs.20,73,06,062/- was due and
 payable to the Petitioner without the necessity of any further
 verification or adjudication.

 49.     In exercising discretionary jurisdiction under Article
 226, we must remember that discretion is exercised on
 equitable principles. If, upon quashing an impugned order,
 another illegal order, ultra vires, or inequitable revives, then
 the Court is not bound to exercise its discretion and permit
 such illegal, ultra vires, or inequitable order to prevail or
 revive. While we do not suggest that the impugned
 communication dated 29 November 2018 is unlawful or ultra
 vires, we are satisfied that the communication dated 29
 November 2018 is neither a statutory order nor a final
 determination on the refund issue. Therefore, upon quashing
 of the impugned communication dated 16 June 2022, we
 cannot immediately issue a writ of mandamus for refund by
 relying entirely on the communication dated 29 November
 2018.

 50.     The third issue is determined accordingly in the above
 terms.




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 51.     Therefore, the communication dated 16 June 2022
 must be quashed and set aside for all the above reasons.
 However, the communication dated 29 November 2018
 cannot be treated or elevated to the status of a final and
 conclusive determination of the Petitioner's entitlement to a
 refund. No mandamus can be issued based entirely or solely
 on the said communication.

 52.     Therefore, we dispose of this petition by passing the
 following order: -

                               ORDER

(i) Communication dated 16 June 2022 is quashed and set
aside

(ii) Communication dated 29 November 2018 cannot be
treated or elevated to the status of a final and conclusive
determination of the Petitioner’s entitlement to a refund.

(iii) The first Respondent is now directed to pass a final order
determining the refund claim of the Petitioner, within eight
weeks from today, after giving the Petitioner the opportunity
of hearing and by passing a speaking order. All contentions on
merits are left open.

(iv) If the Petitioner is found to be entitled to the claim of
refund, interest at the appropriate rate must be granted to
the Petitioner from 10 October 2018 till the grant of refund,
and the time taken for not passing the final order would not
be attributable to the Petitioner.

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53. The Rule in this Petition is disposed of in the above
terms with no order regarding costs.

54. All concerned must act on an authenticated copy of this
order.

 (Jitendra Jain, J)                                     (M.S. Sonak, J)




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