CLAT PG Mock Legal Practice Questions March 2025

Legal Bites brings you the CLAT PG Mock Legal Practice Questions – March 2025, designed to help you refine your preparation strategy and boost your legal aptitude. With the rising competition and evolving exam patterns, consistent practice with quality questions is essential to stay ahead.

11. Which of the following best describes the court’s application of the in pari delicto principle in this case?

A. It shielded the petitioner from liability despite illegal conduct

B. It allowed equal punishment for both parties

C. It barred the complainant from enforcing an illegal debt

D. It required a refund of the money to the complainant

12. What statutory presumption arises when a cheque is issued and dishonoured, as per the judgment?

A. The drawer did not intend to honour the cheque

B. The cheque was issued for a legally enforceable debt

C. The cheque was issued for a lawful consideration

D. The cheque was obtained through fraud

13. According to the judgment, what is the effect of admitting issuance of a cheque by the petitioner?

A. It leads to immediate conviction

B. It waives the complainant’s burden of proof

C. It activates a rebuttable presumption of legal liability

D. It nullifies the need for a trial

14. What does the court criticise regarding parents seeking admission for their children?

A. Their dependence on private tutors

B. Their involvement in admission through corrupt means

C. Their neglect of education

D. Their preference for foreign universities

15. In the given passage, which Latin maxim underpins the court’s refusal to entertain the complainant’s case?

A. Ex turpi causa non oritur actio

B. Nemo dat quod non habet

C. Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea

D. Audi alteram partem

IV. When prima facie evidence is available, the learned Magistrate, in our considered opinion, erred grievously in rejecting the application for maternity leave on assumptions and surmises. The action of the learned District Munsif cum Judicial Magistrate, to say the least is inhuman.In the days where even live-in relationships are recognized by the Hon’ble Supreme Court, the learned District Munsif cum Judicial Magistrate, Kodavasal, appears to have taken archaic view of the matter and has fished for and found out reasons for rejection of the application of the petitioner. This, in our opinion, is wholly unwarranted.

The effect of the said G.O. is only to increase the number of days of maternity leave from 270 days to 365 days. It is the Fundamental Rules which governed grant maternity leave. No doubt, maternity leave can be availed of by a married woman only, but the employer is not expected to seek proof beyond doubt of the factum of marriage. The sequence of events viz. the FIR filed in March 2024 and the fact that the petitioner married Bharathi in April 2024 would show that the case of the petitioner that she conceived and thereafter got married to Bharathi is probable and there is nothing to disbelieve the said statement.

(This extract is taken from B. Kavitha v. The Registrar General & Ors., W.P. No. 6195 of 2025)

16. What was the High Court’s primary criticism of the learned Magistrate’s reasoning in rejecting the maternity leave application?

A. The Magistrate ignored the legal requirement for proof of marriage.

B. The Magistrate relied excessively on the FIR to prove the relationship.

C. The Magistrate applied outdated and unwarranted standards in a modern legal context.

D. The Magistrate failed to consider medical evidence regarding the pregnancy.

17. Which of the following statements best aligns with the Court’s reasoning regarding the marriage status of the petitioner?

A. Maternity leave can only be granted after producing a registered marriage certificate.

B. Marriage must be officially registered under the Tamil Nadu Registration of Marriages Act.

C. A live-in relationship cannot be a ground to claim maternity leave benefits.

D. A marriage need not be compulsorily registered if not disputed and prima facie proof exists.

18. In the passage, what does the phrase “fished for and found out reasons” imply about the Magistrate’s approach?

A. A meticulous and well-reasoned inquiry

B. A legally sound but overly cautious decision-making

C. A premeditated effort to justify denial

D. A compassionate but factually incorrect approach

19. How did the High Court contextualise its criticism of the rejection in terms of evolving social norms?

A. By citing increasing maternal health cases

B. By referencing Supreme Court recognition of live-in relationships

C. By quoting international maternity leave standards

D. By highlighting rising false claims of maternity leave

20. What constitutional remedy did the petitioner invoke in this case?

A. Article 32 – Right to Constitutional Remedies

B. Article 21 – Right to Life and Personal Liberty

C. Article 226 – Power of High Courts to issue writs

D. Article 19 – Freedom of speech and expression

V. Section 166(1)(c) of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 provides that where death has resulted from the accident, all or any of the legal representatives of the deceased are entitled to make a claim for compensation. Since the word ‘legal representative’ is not defined in the Motor Vehicles Act, the definition as given in Section 2(11) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 has always been applied. The said provision reads as below:

‘2(11) “legal representative” means a person who in law represents the estate of a deceased person, and includes any person who intermeddles with the estate of the deceased and where a party sues or is sued in a representative character the person on whom the estate devolves on the death of the party so suing or sued.’

It is an inclusive definition. The definition shows that heirs of the deceased are also legal representatives. Compensation that could be granted on death of an individual in a motor accident becomes the estate of the deceased. A daughter married or unmarried is a legal heir. Therefore, a married daughter is entitled to stake a claim for compensation on the death of her father. However, eligibility to claim is one thing and as to how much is to be granted towards loss of dependency is another aspect. Every heir may not be dependent. Non-heirs may also be dependent. Simply because a daughter is married does not completely cease to be dependent. To what extent she is dependent on her father is a matter of fact and it is that fact which is required to be pleaded and proved and considered in such claims.

(This extract is taken from United India Insurance Co. Ltd. v. Karu Nukalamma & Others, Motor Accident Civil Miscellaneous Appeal No: 3158/2014)

21. According to the judgment, the term “legal representative” for claims under Section 166 of the Motor Vehicles Act is interpreted in light of which of the following?

A. Indian Succession Act, 1925

B. Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

C. Hindu Succession Act, 1956

D. Indian Penal Code, 1860

22. In the given passage, the Court makes which of the following distinctions regarding the compensation claim by heirs?

A. Legal representatives must prove residence with the deceased.

B. Only minor children are entitled to claim compensation.

C. Only those who receive pension are barred from claiming compensation.

D. Eligibility to claim is different from the extent of compensation.

23. Which of the following statements best reflects the Court’s stance on married daughters claiming compensation?

A. Their dependency must be proved as a matter of fact.

B. Their claims are valid only if the first wife is alive.

C. They are barred from claiming compensation under Section 166.

D. They are presumed to be non-dependent.

24. Which interpretation technique did the Court employ when clarifying the meaning of ‘legal representative’ in this context?

A. Strict construction

B. Harmonious construction

C. Beneficial construction

D. Literal construction

25. What key factor determines the quantum of compensation under the head of “loss of dependency” according to this judgment?

A. Actual financial dependency of the claimant

B. Marital status of the deceased

C. Number of legal heirs

D. Whether the deceased had life insurance

VI. The conclusions in Enka Insaat (supra) summarize the tie breaker rules. Sub-paragraph (i) explains that the law governing the arbitration agreement may differ from the law governing the contract. The former should be determined through conflict of law rules. Sub-paragraph (ii) states that the law governing the arbitration agreement is the law chosen by the parties. If no such choice is made, the law most closely connected to the agreement applies. However, sub-paragraph (ii) must be read alongside sub-paragraph (iii), which clarifies that the law chosen for the arbitration agreement is determined by interpreting the agreement, and if necessary, the entire contract using rules of contractual interpretation. Sub-paragraph (iv) states that when the law governing the arbitration agreement is not specified, the law of the contract (lex contractus) usually applies. Sub-paragraph (v) highlights that selecting a country for the seat of arbitration does not automatically alter the presumption that lex contractus governs the arbitration agreement. Sub-paragraph (vi) outlines factors that may override this presumption. This can happen when the law of the seat mandates that the arbitration agreement must be governed by the law of that country. For instance, this becomes relevant in the context of the A&C Act. Section 2(2) of the A&C Act stipulates that Part I of the A&C Act applies to arbitrations seated in India. The second exception is when there is a serious risk that the agreement will become ineffective, or the dispute will become inarbitrable, if governed by the same law as that of the contract. Third factor is where the seat is deliberately chosen as a neutral forum.

(This extract is taken from Disortho S.A.S. v. Meril Life Sciences Pvt. Ltd., 2025 INSC 352)

26. According to the Supreme Court in Disortho v. Meril, when no express law governs the arbitration agreement, which of the following presumptions generally applies?

A. The law of the seat governs the arbitration agreement

B. The law of the forum governs the arbitration agreement

C. The lex contractus governs the arbitration agreement

D. The procedural rules of the arbitral institution govern the arbitration agreement

27. What is the relevance of Section 2(2) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, as discussed in the extract?

A. It mandates enforcement of foreign awards under Part II.

B. It applies Indian arbitration law to arbitrations seated in India.

C. It invalidates arbitration agreements governed by foreign law.

D. It permits Indian courts to supervise arbitrations seated abroad.

28. Which of the following does not qualify as a factor that may override the presumption in favour of lex contractus governing the arbitration agreement?

A. The seat of arbitration is a neutral venue

B. The seat of arbitration is specified in the agreement

C. The arbitration agreement may become ineffective under lex contractus

D. The procedural rules of arbitration are UNCITRAL Model Rules

29. In interpreting the governing law of an arbitration agreement, what role does sub-paragraph (iii) of Enka Insaat play?

A. It mandates default application of seat law

B. It overrides the lex contractus

C. It requires the contract to be interpreted using local interpretive rules

D. It distinguishes between arbitration and non-arbitration clauses

30. What does the phrase “tie-breaker rules” refer to in the context of this judgment?

A. Principles to identify the governing law of arbitration agreements

B. Guidelines for enforcing awards across jurisdictions

C. Methods to resolve disputes between arbitrators

D. Rules for determining which arbitral institution to use

VII. Consent may be express or implied, coerced or misguided, obtained willingly or through deceit. Consent is an act of reason, accompanied by deliberation, the mind weighing, as in a balance, the good and evil on each side. There is a clear distinction between rape and consensual sex and in a case like this, the court must very carefully examine whether the accused had actually wanted to marry the victim, or had mala fide motives, and had made a false promise to this effect only to satisfy his lust, as the latter falls within the ambit of cheating or deception. There is a distinction between the mere breach of a promise, and not fulfilling a false promise. Thus, the court must examine whether there was made, at an early stage a false promise of marriage by the accused; and whether the consent involved was given after wholly understanding the nature and consequences of sexual indulgence. An accused can be convicted for rape only if the court reaches a conclusion that the intention of the accused was mala fide, and that he had clandestine motives.

(This extract is taken from Rajnish Singh @ Soni v. State of U.P. and Another, SLP(Crl.) No(s). 8549 of 2023)

31. According to the extract, under what condition can an accused be held guilty of rape where consent was given based on a promise of marriage?

A. If the promise of marriage is later withdrawn.

B. If the accused always intended to marry but failed due to external factors.

C. If the consent was obtained by a false promise of marriage with mala fide intent.

D. If the relationship continued for over two years without marriage.

32. What distinction does the Court draw in the context of consent and promise of marriage?

A. All broken promises of marriage amount to rape.

B. A mere breach of promise is equal to a false promise.

C. Breach of promise and false promise are distinct; only the latter attracts criminal liability.

D. There is no legal consequence of either promise.

33. Which of the following statements is NOT supported by the extract?

A. Consent must be an act of reason and deliberation.

B. Misrepresentation about marriage can vitiate consent if done intentionally.

C. An accused who fails to marry despite best intentions can still be liable for rape.

D. Consent under deception with clandestine motives can be invalid.

34. The term “mala fide motives” in the context of false promise of marriage, as used in the extract, implies:

A. Making a promise without meaning it, only to exploit.

B. Changing mind about marriage due to social pressure.

C. Avoiding marriage due to unforeseen circumstances.

D. Seeking approval of family before marrying.

35. As per the Court in Rajnish Singh @ Soni, which of the following scenarios would most likely NOT attract Section 376 IPC?

A. A woman was coerced into having sex by threats.

B. A man lied about marriage, never intending to marry, to induce sex.

C. A relationship of 16 years involving mutual sexual relations ends in a breakup.

D. A man gave an engagement ring and later refused to marry due to job loss.

VIII. Section 42 specifically deals with the quantum of punishment mandating that when a particular act or omission constitutes an offence, both under the POCSO Act and also under the provisions of the IPC or the Information Technology Act, 2000 then, the offender found guilty of the offence shall be liable to punishment under the POCSO Act or under the provisions of the IPC whichever provides a punishment of a greater degree.

Section 42A of POCSO Act, on the other hand, deals with the procedural aspects and gives an overriding effect to the provisions of the POCSO Act over any other law for the time being in force where the two Acts are inconsistent with each other. Hence, the provisions of Section 42A of POCSO Act, by no stretch of imagination, can be interpreted so as to override the scope and ambit of enabling provision, i.e., Section 42 of POCSO Act.

(This extract is taken from the Supreme Court judgment in Gyanendra Singh @ Raja Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh, 2025 INSC 335)

36. What is the primary focus of Section 42 of the POCSO Act?

A. Jurisdiction of courts under the Act

B. Procedural supremacy over IPC

C. Quantum of punishment in cases overlapping with IPC or IT Act

D. Immunity from prosecution under IPC

37. According to the Court, Section 42A of the POCSO Act relates to:

A. Choosing the higher punishment

B. Giving procedural override to POCSO in case of conflict

C. Nullifying all IPC provisions

D. Providing immunity to children

38. If an act is punishable under both IPC and POCSO, what must the court consider under Section 42?

A. IPC must be ignored

B. POCSO always prevails

C. Both laws must be applied simultaneously

D. The punishment with greater severity must be applied

39. In this case, why did the Supreme Court find fault with the High Court’s judgment?

A. The High Court wrongly acquitted the appellant

B. The High Court reduced the sentence arbitrarily

C. The High Court increased punishment without an appeal for enhancement

D. The High Court applied the wrong POCSO section

40. What distinction did the Court draw between Section 42 and 42A of the POCSO Act?

A. Section 42 is for sentencing; 42A for procedural conflict

B. Both are irrelevant in overlapping cases

C. Both apply to sentencing

D. Section 42 applies only to minors

IX. The child witness (victim), it is true, has not deposed anything about the commission of the offence against her. When asked about the incident, the trial Judge records that ‘V’ was silent, and upon being further asked, only shed silent tears and nothing more. Nothing could be elicited from the testimony regarding the commission of the offence. This, in our view, cannot be used as a factor in favour of the respondent. The tears of ‘V’, have to be understood for what they are worth. This silence cannot accrue to the benefit of the respondent. The silence here is that of a child. It cannot be equated with the silence of a fully realised adult prosecutrix… In these facts, ‘V’ has not turned hostile. Trauma has engulfed her in silence.

(This extract is taken from State of Rajasthan v. Chatra, 2025 INSC 360)

41. According to the judgment in State of Rajasthan v. Chatra (2025), what is the evidentiary implication of a child victim’s silence during trial?

A. Silence indicates hostility toward the prosecution.

B. Silence cannot be treated as favouring the accused in such cases.

C. Silence renders the prosecution case weak by default.

D. Silence must always be corroborated by other victim statements.

42. Which of the following principles regarding child witness testimony was affirmed in this case?

A. Child witness must always be corroborated by adult testimony.

B. Child witnesses are unreliable unless confirmed by medical evidence.

C. Child witness testimony, if found credible, can form the sole basis for conviction.

D. Child witness must be examined in-camera, or the trial is void.

43. What was the Court’s stance on the High Court’s reversal of the trial court’s conviction?

A. The High Court acted correctly in giving benefit of doubt.

B. The High Court thoroughly examined all evidence.

C. The High Court’s six-page reasoning was adequate.

D. The High Court erred in not properly appreciating medical and circumstantial evidence.

44. The principle that circumstantial evidence must exclude all other hypotheses except the guilt of the accused was laid down in which precedent?

A. Kartar Singh v. State of Punjab

B. Dattu Ramrao Sakhare v. State of Maharashtra

C. Sharad Birdhichand Sarda v. State of Maharashtra

D. Om Prakash v. State of Rajasthan

45. In context of this case, what does the Supreme Court say about reliance on testimony of a child victim who cannot recall the incident?

A. Such testimony is inadmissible.

B. It cannot form the basis of conviction.

C. It must be ignored unless expert-supported.

D. It should not automatically benefit the accused, especially if other strong evidence exists.

X. Therefore, neither the cause of death mentioned in the post-mortem report nor the evidence of PW-17 prove that the injuries inflicted upon the deceased resulted in his death. Moreover, the death occurred 15 days after the incident.

We are conscious of the fact that there is no appeal preferred by the accused. But the fact remains that the medical evidence creates a serious doubt as to whether injuries allegedly inflicted by the respondents caused the death of Laxman. Therefore, there is a serious doubt whether even Section 304 of the IPC could have been applied, as the medical opinion does not support the theory of homicidal death of the deceased. That is why it is not possible to interfere with the judgment of the High Court directing that the respondents-accused should be let off for the offence under Section 304, read with Section 149 of the IPC, on the sentence that has been undergone.

(This extract is taken from State of Madhya Pradesh v. Shyamlal & Ors., 2025 INSC 377)

46. Based on the passage, which of the following best represents the reasoning of the Supreme Court in not interfering with the High Court’s order?

A. The High Court was incorrect in law but justified on humanitarian grounds.

B. The High Court’s findings were based on solid eyewitness testimony.

C. The medical evidence did not conclusively link the injuries to the death.

D. The appeal by the State was barred due to procedural delay.

47. Under which of the following circumstances did the Court express doubt regarding the application of Section 304 IPC?

A. The death occurred more than 30 years after the crime.

B. There was a clear intention to cause death, but it failed.

C. The deceased died due to poison, not injuries.

D. The death was not conclusively proved to be due to the injuries.

48. What did the post-mortem report indicate as the cause of death of Laxman?

A. Suffocation, with no definite cause ascertainable

B. Cardiac arrest due to trauma

C. Fracture of the occipital bone

D. Multiple internal haemorrhages

49. What principle of criminal law did the Court reaffirm in its final decision regarding punishment?

A. Retributive punishment must always be imposed.

B. Sentence must always be proportional to the age of the accused.

C. Delay and old age may be mitigating factors when determining punishment.

D. All convicts must serve full sentence regardless of appeal pendency.

50. In the context of Section 149 IPC, what reasoning did the Supreme Court apply in determining whether it was appropriately applied?

A. It was inapplicable due to lack of common object.

B. Medical evidence undermined the causal link, making Section 149 inapplicable for homicide.

C. The High Court had rightly reduced it to Section 147 only.

D. Section 149 was never charged in this case.

XI. Minor discrepancies or variance in evidence will not make the prosecution’s case doubtful. The normal course of human conduct would be that while narrating a particular incident there may occur minor discrepancies… Parrot-like statements are disfavoured by the courts… In the depositions of witnesses there are always normal discrepancies, however honest and truthful they may be. Such discrepancies are due to normal errors of observation, normal errors of memory due to lapse of time, due to mental disposition such as shock and horror at the time of occurrence, and the like. Material discrepancies are those which are not normal and not expected of a normal person.

(This extract is taken from Firoz Khan Akbarkhan v. State of Maharashtra, 2025 INSC 387)

51. According to the Supreme Court in the above passage, which of the following best reflects the Court’s view on minor discrepancies in witness testimonies?

A. Minor discrepancies are fatal to the prosecution’s case.

B. Discrepancies in witness statements always indicate falsehood.

C. Minor discrepancies are natural and may even add credibility.

D. Consistent parrot-like witness statements are preferred.

52. What, according to the judgment, distinguishes a material discrepancy from a minor discrepancy in witness statements?

A. Material discrepancies occur only during police interrogation.

B. Material discrepancies are those expected from average witnesses.

C. Minor discrepancies are deliberate and rehearsed.

D. Material discrepancies are uncommon and unexpected deviations.

53. What does the Supreme Court imply by saying “parrot-like statements are disfavoured”?

A. Exact consistency in witness statements may indicate fabrication.

B. Only rehearsed testimony is acceptable in criminal cases.

C. Witnesses should repeat the same story verbatim.

D. All witnesses must be coached to give similar statements.

54. Which of the following judgments was NOT cited in support of the principle that minor discrepancies do not weaken the prosecution’s case?

A. State of Himachal Pradesh v. Lekh Raj

B. Jagjit Singh v. State of Punjab

C. Appabhai v. State of Gujarat

D. State of Rajasthan v. Kalki

55. In the context of the quoted passage, how should courts assess witness testimony?

A. Based solely on consistency between all witnesses.

B. By discarding any testimony with even minor contradictions.

C. By appreciating natural human error and context of the incident.

D. By relying only on forensic and medical evidence.

XII. Freedom of speech and expression is one of the most important fundamental rights conferred under Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution. This case shows that even after 75 years of its existence, the law enforcement machinery of the State is either ignorant about this important right or does not care for it. The poem in question, upon plain reading, has nothing to do with any religion, caste, community, or any particular group. It only seeks to challenge injustice meted out by the rulers, and rather than inciting violence, it promotes non-violence and encourages meeting injustice with love. The FIR based on this poem, registered under Sections 196, 197, 299, 302, 57 and 3(5) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, is not only baseless but also borders on perversity. The police officer ought to have exercised discretion under Section 173(3) of BNSS by conducting a preliminary inquiry instead of mechanically registering the FIR. Courts are duty-bound to uphold and enforce the Constitution. Popular perceptions, however strong, cannot override the constitutional guarantees of freedom in what is always intended to be a free society.

(This extract is edited and revised from Imran Pratapgarhi v. State of Gujarat and Anr., Criminal Appeal No. 1545 of 2025)

56. According to the Supreme Court in Imran Pratapgarhi v. State of Gujarat, what must the police consider before registering an FIR under Section 173(1) of BNSS?

A. Whether there is public sentiment supporting the FIR

B. Whether the accused has political affiliations

C. Whether the spoken/written words disclose a cognizable offence on plain reading

D. Whether the media has covered the incident

57. Which fundamental duty under Article 51A was emphasized in the judgment?

A. To develop scientific temper

B. To uphold and protect the sovereignty of India

C. To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals

D. To value and preserve the rich heritage of our culture

58. What legal standard did the Supreme Court endorse while interpreting the poem’s content in this case?

A. The view of a reasonable, strong-minded individual

B. The emotional impact on the complainant

C. Whether it offends political leaders

D. Whether it causes mild discomfort to readers

59. Which of the following was not found applicable by the Court to the poem in question?

A. Section 196 of BNSS – promoting enmity

B. Section 299 of BNSS – outraging religious feelings

C. Section 302 of BNSS – wounding religious sentiments

D. Section 103 of BNSS – criminal conspiracy

60. According to the judgment, which previous Supreme Court case laid down the principle that FIR registration is mandatory when a cognizable offence is disclosed?

A. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India

B. Lalita Kumari v. State of U.P.

C. Arnesh Kumar v. State of Bihar

D. Romila Thapar v. Union of India

XIII. It is unfortunate that in today’s society, dowry deaths remain a grave social concern, and in our opinion, the courts are duty-bound to undertake deeper scrutiny of the circumstances under which bail is granted in these cases. The social message emanating from judicial orders in such cases cannot be overstated: when a young bride dies under suspicious circumstances within barely two years of marriage, the judiciary must reflect heightened vigilance and seriousness. A superficial application of bail parameters not only undermines the gravity of the offence itself but also risks weakening public faith in the judiciary’s resolve to combat the menace of dowry deaths. It is this very perception of justice, both within and outside the courtroom, that courts must safeguard, lest we risk normalizing a crime that continues to claim numerous innocent lives.

(This extract is taken from Shabeen Ahmad v. State of Uttar Pradesh & Ors., 2025 INSC 307)

61. According to the Supreme Court in this extract, what is the primary judicial responsibility in cases involving suspicious dowry deaths?

A. To ensure the accused are not wrongfully convicted

B. To preserve judicial neutrality at all costs

C. To exercise heightened scrutiny while granting bail

D. To prioritise settlement between families to prevent further litigation

62. What risk does the Court associate with a superficial application of bail parameters in dowry death cases?

A. Procedural delay in trial

B. Weakening of public confidence in judicial resolve

C. Unnecessary media attention

D. Violation of Article 21 of the Constitution

63. Which of the following best reflects the Court’s underlying concern in granting bail to accused in dowry death cases?

A. Societal message and normalisation of heinous crimes

B. Maintaining uniformity in all bail orders

C. Protection of the fundamental rights of the accused

D. Avoiding negative media portrayal of the judiciary

64. In the given extract, how does the Court view the perception of justice?

A. Limited to the outcome of the trial

B. An internal judicial concern not meant for public discussion

C. Irrelevant if the trial court is conducting proceedings fairly

D. A factor that influences both courtroom decisions and public trust

65. Which of the following statements best captures the Court’s approach to bail jurisprudence in this judgment?

A. Courts should consider the gravity of offence and broader societal impact

B. Accused women should be granted bail to avoid custodial hardship

C. Bail must be granted liberally in the absence of criminal antecedents

D. Bail should be the rule and jail the exception

XIV. It is submitted that the IIT Delhi Administration had failed to put forth its case before the Hon’ble High Court, and has failed to even appear before this Hon’ble Court despite service, to present its version of events, and its stand. There has been no manner of support or assistance by the IIT Delhi Administration for the parents and the family members of the deceased students. It is submitted that such oblivious and disinterested conduct on part of the IIT Delhi Administration, towards a case involving the death of its two students within its campus in a span of less than two months, further strengthens the case of the Petitioners that an investigation is necessary into these deaths.

(This extract is taken from Amit Kumar & Ors. v. Union of India & Ors., Criminal Appeal No. 1425 of 2025)

66. Under which section of the CrPC did the police initiate the inquiry in the case involving the deaths of the IIT Delhi students?

A. Section 156

B. Section 174

C. Section 154

D. Section 482

67. What did the Supreme Court observe about the police’s failure to act despite complaints disclosing a cognizable offence?

A. The police acted lawfully under Section 174 CrPC.

B. The police correctly assessed the case as a suicide and closed it.

C. The police should have registered an FIR under Section 154 CrPC.

D. The police had no obligation since post-mortem confirmed suicide.

68. What was the conclusion reached by the police following their inquiry?

A. The students were murdered by fellow students.

B. There was no foul play; the deaths were due to depression-induced suicides.

C. The students died due to food poisoning.

D. No conclusion was reached.

69. According to the passage, who lodged the complaints that should have prompted an FIR?

A. The IIT hostel wardens

B. The post-mortem doctors

C. The SC/ST Cell of IIT Delhi

D. The father and the brother of the deceased students

70. Which key legal principle regarding FIR registration was underscored by the Supreme Court in this extract?

A. FIR is optional and dependent on police discretion.

B. FIR must be registered only after a magistrate’s approval.

C. FIR must be registered when a cognizable offence is disclosed.

D. FIR can only be registered after a departmental enquiry.

XV. As the maxim ‘Falsus in uno, falsus in omnibus’ (false in one thing, false in everything) is not part of Indian law and jurisprudence and is, at best, a rule of caution, the entire evidence of these witnesses need not be discarded because some of their statements are proved to be factually incorrect. However, their depositions would have to be viewed with care and caution before they are accepted and acted upon. In this regard, we may note that the enmity between the family of the deceased and some of the accused was admitted by the family members themselves. Their depositions before the Trial Court, naming all the accused and attributing specific overt acts to each of them, would have to be examined very carefully, given the variance in the initial version in the F.I.R. In fact, this inconsistency dented the prosecution’s case in entirety even against Ramlal.

All that Devisingh had reported at the time of registration of the F.I.R. was that he saw Ramlal, one of the five accused, and a man wearing a suit and shoes, who remained unknown, running away from the spot. He did not name any of the other accused but his deposition before the Trial Court was very much to the contrary, as he not only named them but also attributed specific overt acts to them. Similarly, the other family members, whose very presence at the spot becomes rather doubtful, furnished full-fledged details of how the accused attacked Mohan Singh. In this regard, the evidence of D.S. Parmar, the Investigating Officer (PW-20), assumes great significance. He categorically asserted that none of these witnesses had stated the versions that they put forth before the Trial Court in their Section 161 Cr.P.C. statements.

(This extract is taken Arun v. State of Madhya Pradesh, 2025 INSC 406)

71. What is the correct legal position regarding the maxim “Falsus in uno, falsus in omnibus” as noted by the Supreme Court in this case?

A. It is a binding principle under Indian Evidence Act.

B. It is applicable only when enmity is proved.

C. It is not part of Indian law but can be applied strictly in all cases.

D. It is not part of Indian law but serves as a rule of caution.

72. According to the Court, what was the major flaw in the prosecution’s reliance on witness testimonies?

A. All witnesses were declared hostile.

B. Witnesses had vested property interest in the outcome.

C. Witnesses improved their versions significantly in court compared to their earlier statements.

D. Witnesses did not belong to the same village.

73. Why did the Court place significance on the statement of D.S. Parmar, the Investigating Officer?

A. He recorded the FIR himself.

B. He confirmed discrepancies between Section 161 CrPC statements and trial depositions.

C. He was declared as an unreliable witness by the prosecution.

D. He found physical evidence supporting the prosecution.

74. Which of the following principles guided the Court’s approach in appreciating the oral testimonies of interested witnesses?

A. All testimonies of related witnesses must be discarded.

B. Conviction can be based solely on interested testimony if consistent.

C. Testimonies of related witnesses can be relied upon only with caution and corroboration.

D. Interested testimony is valid even without cross-examination.

75. Which aspect of Devisingh’s statement most strongly indicated embellishment before the Trial Court?

A. He denied seeing any of the accused.

B. He named only one accused in the FIR but gave a detailed account implicating all at trial.

C. He claimed he was not present at the crime scene.

D. He contradicted the post-mortem report findings.

XVI. We have carefully perused the decision of this Court in the case of Priyanka Srivastava. This Court has noted that there was misuse of the provisions of sub-Section (3) of Section 156.

In our considered opinion, a stage has come in this country where Section 156(3) CrPC applications are to be supported by an affidavit duly sworn by the applicant who seeks the invocation of the jurisdiction of the Magistrate. That apart, in an appropriate case, the learned Magistrate would be well advised to verify the truth and also can verify the veracity of the allegations. This affidavit can make the applicant more responsible. We are compelled to say so as such kind of applications are being filed in a routine manner without taking any responsibility whatsoever only to harass certain persons. That apart, it becomes more disturbing and alarming when one tries to pick up people who are passing orders under a statutory provision which can be challenged under the framework of the said Act or under Article 226 of the Constitution of India. But it cannot be done to take undue advantage in a criminal court as if somebody is determined to settle the scores.

We have already indicated that there has to be prior applications under Sections 154(1) and 154(3) while filing a petition under Section 156(3). Both the aspects should be clearly spelt out in the application and necessary documents to that effect shall be filed. The warrant for giving a direction that an application under Section 156(3) be supported by an affidavit is so that the person making the application should be conscious and also endeavour to see that no false affidavit is made. It is because once an affidavit is found to be false, he will be liable for prosecution in accordance with law. This will deter him to casually invoke the authority of the Magistrate under Section 156(3). That apart, we have already stated that the veracity of the same can also be verified by the learned Magistrate, regard being had to the nature of allegations of the case.

(This extract is taken from Ranjit Singh Bath & Anr. v. Union Territory Chandigarh & Anr., Criminal Appeal No. 4313 of 2024)

76. According to the Supreme Court’s interpretation in Ranjit Singh Bath v. UT Chandigarh, what must accompany an application under Section 156(3) CrPC?

A. A certified copy of FIR

B. An affidavit by the applicant

C. A police investigation report

D. An order under Article 226

77. Which previous case was heavily relied upon in the judgment to determine the legality of invoking Section 156(3)?

A. Lalita Kumari v. State of U.P.

B. Babu Venkatesh v. State of Karnataka

C. Priyanka Srivastava v. State of U.P.

D. Sakiri Vasu v. State of U.P.

78. Under Section 175(1) of the BNSS, who is empowered to initiate investigation in a cognizable case without prior permission of the Magistrate?

A. Superintendent of Police

B. Officer in charge of a police station

C. Deputy Superintendent of Police

D. Judicial Magistrate

79. The power to investigate a cognizable case under Section 175(1), BNSS is subject to which chapter for determining jurisdiction?

A. Chapter XII

B. Chapter IX

C. Chapter IV

D. Chapter XIV

80. Which of the following statements is TRUE under BNSS Section 175(1)?

A. Every cognizable offence must be investigated only after Magistrate’s permission.

B. Only DSP-level officers can investigate serious cognizable cases.

C. SHO can investigate cognizable offences, but SP may require DSP to investigate serious ones.

D. Investigation must be supervised by a High Court Judge

XVII. Section 23(1) of the Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007 is designed to protect senior citizens in situations where they transfer their property, either through a gift or settlement, with the expectation that the transferee will provide for their basic amenities and physical needs. The law does not require an express condition in the document for maintenance. Instead, it recognizes that love and affection serve as the consideration for the transfer and that this implicit condition is enough to invoke the provision in case of neglect.

The conditions under Section 23(1) of the Senior Citizens Act need not be explicit, but might be implied. The love and affection being the consideration, which can be traced out in the Settlement Deed, would be sufficient to hold that such love and affection is an implied condition that the senior citizen will be taken care of by the beneficiary. In the event of neglecting the senior citizen, the deed of settlement or gift is liable to be annulled.

(This extract is taken from S. Mala v. District Arbitrator & Ors., W.A. No. 3582 of 2024)

81. Which of the following best captures the legal essence of Section 23(1) as interpreted in S. Mala v. District Arbitrator?

A. An explicit clause requiring maintenance is mandatory in all property transfer deeds under the Senior Citizens Act.

B. The law presumes coercion if the transferee fails to maintain the senior citizen.

C. An implied obligation to maintain the senior citizen can be inferred from expressions of love and affection in the deed.

D. Any property transfer by a senior citizen is void under Section 23(1) unless notarised.

82. In the S. Mala case, what justified the annulment of the settlement deed under Section 23(1)?

A. The deed lacked registration.

B. The senior citizen explicitly revoked the gift in writing.

C. The daughter-in-law provided written assurance but later withdrew support.

D. The senior citizen was neglected post-transfer, satisfying the implied condition of maintenance under Section 23(1).

83. According to the court in S. Mala v. District Arbitrator, how should courts interpret Section 23(1) of the Senior Citizens Act?.

A. Beneficially and purposively, to advance senior citizens’ welfare.

B. In favour of the donee to avoid litigation.

C. Strictly, since it is a penal provision.

D. Literally, focusing only on written conditions.

84. What did the court conclude regarding the need for explicit maintenance clauses in gift or settlement deeds?

A. They are mandatory under the 2007 Act.

B. They are helpful but not essential if implied intent is evident.

C. They must be certified by a medical officer.

D. They are required only when multiple heirs are involved.

85. Which of the following principles was reaffirmed in the S. Mala judgment regarding senior citizen protection?

A. Senior citizens must file civil suits for revocation.

B. Implied terms arising from emotional bonds may be legally enforceable.

C. Only explicit contract terms are enforceable under Indian law.

D. Maintenance is not enforceable unless the document is executed in court.

XVIII. Taking into consideration the observations made hereinabove, this Court is of the view that qualified wives, having the earning capacity but desirous of remaining idle, should now set up a claim for interim maintenance. Section 125 of the CrPC carries the legislative intent to maintain equality among the spouses, provide protection to the wives, children and parents, and not promote idleness. In light of the same, this Court is of the considered view that a well-educated wife, with experience in a suitable gainful job, ought not to remain idle solely to gain maintenance from her husband. Therefore, interim maintenance is being discouraged in the present case as this Court can see potential in the petitioner to earn and make good of her education.

(This extract is taken from Megha Khetrapal v. Rajat Kapoor, CRL.REV.P. 273/2023 & Crl.M.A. 6767/2023)

86. On what basis does the Court discourage interim maintenance in this case?

A. The petitioner has remarried

B. The petitioner is not legally wedded

C. The petitioner is well-educated and has earning potential

D. The husband is unemployed

87. Which of the following best summarizes the Court’s stance on maintenance claims by qualified wives?

A. Maintenance is always mandatory irrespective of qualifications

B. Qualified wives must prove financial hardship

C. Maintenance should be equal to the husband’s income

D. Maintenance should not be granted if the wife is capable but chooses to remain idle

88. Under the BNSS, 2023, which provision deals with maintenance to wife, children, and parents?

A. Section 136

B. Section 144

C. Section 160

D. Section 154

89. Interim maintenance and expenses of proceedings under Section 144 BNSS should, as far as possible, be disposed of within:

A. 30 days

B. 90 days

C. 60 days

D. 120 days

90. Under Section 144 of BNSS, who can be directed to pay maintenance?

A. Any man, irrespective of means, if wife demands

B. A person having sufficient means who neglects or refuses to maintain dependents

C. A person having no income but living in a joint family

D. Only husbands who are government servants

XIX. Only three small issues have been flagged by the appellants, which need further clarification from this Court:

i) The Bank be directed to remove the word ‘settlement’ used in the loan account statement as it may affect future loan facilities being availed by the appellant. As such, the Bank be requested to delete the word ‘settlement’ and substitute it by the word ‘re-paid’.

ii) The apartments purchased by the appellants are ready and some minor work remains which the builder may complete forthwith and hand over possession to the appellants. It is also submitted that builder has already handed over possession in the said building to many other flat-owners.

iii) Another small issue raised is that the builder has not issued acknowledgment of the payments made by the appellants pursuant to the order dated 06.11.2024.

(This extract is taken from Akshay Gupta & Ors. v. ICICI Bank Ltd. & Ors., 2025 INSC 391)

91. What was the concern of the appellants regarding the term “settlement” in the loan account statement?

A. It was inaccurately mentioned in the sale deed.

B. It implied a criminal compromise.

C. It could negatively affect their future creditworthiness.

D. It was a violation of the RBI circular.

92. What remedy did the Court suggest regarding the builder’s failure to acknowledge payments made by the appellants?

A. Direct the bank to issue acknowledgment.

B. Consider the bank transfer as valid proof, but still direct the builder to issue a formal acknowledgment.

C. Cancel the agreement with the builder.

D. Levy penalty on the builder for non-compliance.

93. Which of the following was not one of the three residual issues flagged by the appellants?

A. Use of the word ‘settlement’ in bank records.

B. Delay in builder’s possession delivery.

C. Builder refusing registration of sale deed.

D. Lack of acknowledgment for payments made.

94. What was the Court’s response regarding the appellants’ concern about the possession of apartments?

A. The Court denied any relief.

B. The Court directed the builder to hand over possession by a specific date.

C. The Court instructed the Bank to intervene.

D. The Court imposed costs on the builder.

95. Why did the appellants want the term “settlement” replaced with “re-paid” in their loan records?

A. Because “settlement” signified partial loan waiver.

B. Because it was used for criminal cases.

C. Because it was a clerical error.

D. Because it implied that the loan wasn’t fully honoured.

XX. The Senior Citizens Act vide Chapter-II provides for maintenance of parents and senior citizens. It inter alia provides a senior citizen or a parent who is unable to maintain himself from his own earning or the property owned by him shall be entitled to make an application against his parent or grandparent or against one or more of his children (not a minor) or where the senior citizen is issueless against specified relatives to fulfil his needs to enable him to lead a normal life. The Tribunal constituted under the Act on such an application may provide for the monthly allowance for the maintenance and expenses and in the event they fail to comply with the order, the Tribunal may for breach of the order issue a warrant for levying fines and may sentence such person to imprisonment for a term which may extend to one month or until payment is made whichever is earlier.

The provisions of the Senior Citizens Act, nowhere specifically provides for drawing proceedings for eviction of persons from any premises owned or belonging to such a senior person. It is only on account of the observations made by this Court in S. Vanitha vs. Commissioner, Bengaluru Urban District & Ors. that the Tribunal under the Senior Citizens Act may also order eviction if it is necessary and expedient to ensure the protection of the senior citizens. The Tribunal thus had acquired jurisdiction to pass orders of eviction while exercising jurisdiction under Section 23 of the Senior Citizen Act which otherwise provide for treating the sale of the property to be void if it is against the interest of the senior citizen.

The aforesaid decision was followed by this Court in Urmila Dixit (2025) 2 SCC 787. However, even in the aforesaid case the court has only held that in a given case, the Tribunal “may order” eviction but it is not necessary and mandatory to pass an order of eviction in every case.

(This extract is taken from Samtola Devi v. State of Uttar Pradesh & Ors., SLP (C) No. 26651 of 2023)

96. According to the Supreme Court in Samtola Devi v. State of Uttar Pradesh, what is the nature of the Tribunal’s power to order eviction under the Senior Citizens Act?

A. It is mandatory in all cases where the senior citizen seeks eviction

B. It is discretionary, based on expediency and necessity

C. It is prohibited unless specifically mentioned in the Act

D. It is limited only to tenanted properties

97. In Samtola Devi, the eviction jurisdiction under Section 23 of the Senior Citizens Act is rooted in which judicial precedent?

A. Joseph Shine v. Union of India

B. S. Vanitha v. Commissioner, Bengaluru Urban District

C. Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India

D. Shayara Bano v. Union of India

98. What does Chapter II of the Senior Citizens Act primarily deal with?

A. Protection of property rights of minors

B. Formation of appellate tribunals for elder disputes

C. Maintenance of parents and senior citizens

D. Prevention of domestic violence against elderly women

99. According to the Court, what legal remedy is directly available under the Senior Citizens Act if a maintenance order is not complied with?

A. Civil suit for damages

B. Contempt of court proceedings

C. Issuance of warrant and imprisonment up to one month

D. Automatic eviction from the property

100. What was the Supreme Court’s interpretation regarding the mandatory nature of eviction under the Senior Citizens Act in Urmila Dixit?

A. The Act mandates eviction of all relatives not paying maintenance

B. The Tribunal has no power of eviction

C. Eviction must follow criminal prosecution

D. Eviction may be ordered, but it is not mandatory in every case

XXI. We have already found that there is no promise of marriage to coerce consent from the victim for sexual intercourse; as forthcoming from the statements made by the victim. The promise if any was after the first physical intercourse and even later the allegation was forceful intercourse without any consent. In all the three instances it was the allegation that, the intercourse was on threat and coercion and there is no consent spoken of by the victim, in which case there cannot be any inducement found, on a promise held out. The allegation of forceful intercourse on threat and coercion is also not believable, given the relationship admitted between the parties and the willing and repeated excursions to hotel rooms.

(This extract taken from Jothiragawan v. State Rep. by Inspector of Police & Anr., 2025 INSC 386)

101. According to the Court’s analysis, which of the following statements is most accurate?

A. Promise of marriage made after the act of intercourse can still vitiate consent.

B. Repeated visits to the hotel negate any claim of coercion.

C. The accused had a legal duty to marry the victim after intercourse.

D. Threats made after intercourse make it a case of rape.

102. In the Court’s reasoning, the distinction between consensual sex and rape in such cases hinges on:

A. Whether the victim filed an FIR in time.

B. Whether there was monetary exchange.

C. Whether the consent was obtained through misrepresentation or coercion.

D. Whether the intercourse occurred in a hotel or home.

103. What prior judgment was heavily relied upon by the Supreme Court in deciding this case?

A. Prithvirajan v. State Rep. by the Inspector of Police

B. Tukaram v. State of Maharashtra

C Nirbhaya Case

D. State of Punjab v. Gurmit Singh Prithvirajan v. State Rep. by the Inspector of Police

104. What is the primary objective of Section 528 of BNSS?

A. To vest the High Court with appellate powers

B. To confer suo motu revisional powers to trial courts

C. To preserve the inherent powers of the High Court

D. To empower the police to prevent crime

105. As per the passage, when can a promise of marriage be treated as inducement under criminal law?

A. When the promise is legally enforceable.

B. When it is made before and causes the consent to sexual intercourse.

C. When the victim later regrets the relationship.

D. When the promise is made by a relative.

XXII. The main test to find out whether the document constitutes a Will or a gift is to see whether the disposition of interest in the property is in praesenti in favour of the settlee or whether the disposition is to take effect on the death of the executant. If the disposition is to take effect on the death of the executant, it would be a Will. But if the executant divests his interest in the property and vests his interest in praesenti on the settlee, the document will be a settlement. A Will is the legal declaration of the intention of the testator to be given effect after his death. A gift is a voluntary transfer of property without consideration, and must be accepted during the lifetime of the donor.

(This extract is taken from N.P. Saseendran v. N.P. Ponnamma & Ors., 2025 INSC 388)

106. According to the judgment, which of the following is the most appropriate test to differentiate a gift from a Will?

A. Whether the document is registered under the Registration Act.

B. Whether consideration was paid to the executant.

C. Whether the disposition takes effect in praesenti or after death.

D. Whether the donee is a family member.

107. What does the term “in praesenti” signify in the context of property disposition?

A. Rights are given after the death of the owner.

B. Rights are retained by the executant for life.

C. Rights are conferred only upon registration.

D. Rights are transferred immediately during the executant’s lifetime.

108. Under Section 122 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, a valid gift must be:

A. Made for consideration and signed by the donee.

B. Voluntary and accepted by the donee during the donor’s lifetime.

C. Made by a Will and attested by two witnesses.

D. Registered and notarized under all circumstances.

109. Which of the following conditions invalidates a gift under Indian law?

A. It is made through a registered deed.

B. It is accepted after the donor’s death.

C. The donee is a minor.

D. It is made without consideration.

110. Which of the following best describes a “Settlement” as distinguished from a gift or Will?

A. It always involves monetary consideration.

B. It must be registered and is effective only after the settlor’s death.

C. It may reserve life interest but vests rights in praesenti.

D. It cannot be executed in favour of family members.

XXIII. In a motor accident claim, there is no adversarial litigation and it is the preponderance of probabilities which reign supreme in adjudication of the tortious liability flowing from it, as has been held in Sunita v. Rajasthan State Road Transport Corporation (2020) 13 SCC 486. Dulcina Fernandes v. Joaquim Xavier Cruz (2013) 10 SCC 646* is a case in which the rider, who also carried a pillion, died in an accident involving a pick-up van. There was a contention taken that the claimants who were the legal heirs of the deceased had not cared to examine the pillion rider and hence the version of the respondent in the written statement that the moving scooter had hit the parked pick-up van, was to be accepted. It was found, as in the present case, that the Police had charge-sheeted the driver of the pick-up van which prima facie showed negligence of the charge-sheeted accused. Similarly in the present case also, the Police after investigation, charge-sheeted the driver of the trailer finding clear negligence on him, which led to the accident. This has not been controverted by the respondents before the Tribunal by any valid evidence nor even a pleading.

(This extract is taken from Srikrishna Kanta Singh v. Oriental Insurance Co. Ltd. & Ors., Special Leave Petition (C) No.12459 of 2019)

111. According to the passage, what standard of proof governs the adjudication of motor accident claims?

A. Proof beyond reasonable doubt

B. Balance of convenience

C. Preponderance of probabilities

D. Clear and convincing evidence

112. In the case of Dulcina Fernandes v. Joaquim Xavier Cruz, why was the negligence of the pick-up van driver accepted by the Court?

A. Because the pillion rider testified in favor of the deceased

B. Because the pick-up van was parked illegally

C. Because the driver of the pick-up van was charge-sheeted by the police

D. Because the claimants had proved that the van driver was drunk

113. Which of the following best explains the Court’s position regarding the insurer’s failure to contest the negligence claim?

A. It barred the insurer from appearing in future claims.

B. It weakened the respondent’s defense since they did not provide contrary evidence or pleadings.

C. It led to dismissal of the case.

D. It had no impact on the claim adjudication.

114. What is the main reasoning for rejecting the High Court’s conclusion on contributory negligence in the present case?

A. The scooter had no insurance.

B. The scooter driver had a learner’s license.

C. The trailer driver’s fault was established by charge sheet and not rebutted.

D. The victim admitted to driving rashly.

115. Why did the Court find it inappropriate for the High Court to rely on the scooter owner’s written statement?

A. Because the scooter owner did not sign the statement

B. Because the claimant was not allowed to cross-examine the scooter owner

C. Because the scooter was not registered

D. Because the High Court ignored the police evidence

XXIV. There cannot be any dispute to the proposition of law as noted by the High Court that the burden of proof as regards the classification of any goods of importation is upon the Revenue/Customs authority and the standard of proof in proceedings under the Tariff Act is not “beyond reasonable doubt”. However, whether “preponderance of probability” can be the appropriate test for classification under the Customs Act would be required to be examined in the light of the “General Rules for the interpretation of this Schedule” as provided in the First Schedule – Import Tariff in Part 2 of the Tariff Act…

The aforesaid Rules provide the principles on the basis of which the goods in the First Schedule to the Tariff Act are to be classified, which had escaped the attention of all the three forums below and each forum had adopted its own methodology to determine the proper classification of the goods/substance in issue as discussed above dehors the aforesaid rules for interpretation.

(This extract is taken from Gastrade International v. Commissioner of Customs, Kandla, 2025 INSC 411)

116. According to the Supreme Court in the given passage, who bears the burden of proof in classification disputes under the Customs Act?

A. The High Court

B. The Assessee

C. The Revenue/Customs Authority

D. The Importer and Exporter jointly

117. What is the standard of proof required in classification cases under the Customs Act, as per the Supreme Court?

A. Beyond reasonable doubt

B. Mathematical certainty

C. Absolute certainty

D. Preponderance of probability

118. What was the main legal flaw noted by the Supreme Court in the approach of the lower authorities?

A. Ignoring the General Rules for Interpretation under the Tariff Act

B. Misapplication of the Evidence Act

C. Failure to admit expert testimony

D. Overreliance on international trade rules

119. The Supreme Court suggests that classification should be determined according to:

A. Only test reports of government laboratories

B. Chapter titles in the Tariff Schedule

C. General principles of common law

D. Terms of headings and relevant Section or Chapter Notes

120. Why did the Supreme Court criticize the CESTAT and the High Court?

A. They admitted inadmissible evidence

B. They failed to apply Section 74 of the Indian Contract Act

C. They overlooked the interpretative rules under the Customs Tariff

D. They imposed penalties without hearing the parties