Findoc Finvest Private Limited vs Deputy Commissioner Of Income Tax And … on 7 March, 2025

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Punjab-Haryana High Court

Findoc Finvest Private Limited vs Deputy Commissioner Of Income Tax And … on 7 March, 2025

Author: Sanjeev Prakash Sharma

Bench: Sanjeev Prakash Sharma

                                 Neutral Citation No:=2025:PHHC:033945-DB
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CWP-9658-2024
         2024 (O&M)


             IN THE HIGH COURT OF PUNJAB AND HARYANA
                         AT CHANDIGARH




                                              CWP-9658
                                                   9658-2024 (O&M)
                                              Reserved on : 17.12.2024
                                              Pronounced on : 07th March, 2025


FinDoc Finvest Private Ltd.                                       ...Petitioner

                    Vs.

Deputy Commissioner of Income Tax Central Circle-01 and another

                                                                    ...Respondents


CORAM: HON'BLE MR. JUSTICE SANJEEV PRAKASH SHARMA
       HON'BLE MR. JUSTICE SANJAY VASHISTH

Present:     Mr. Gurminder Singh, Sr. Advocate with
             Mr. Rohit Jain, Advocate,
             Mr. Ritesh Mohindra, Advocate,
             Mr. Paras Money Goyal, Advocate,
             Mr. Samarth Chaudhari, Advocate and
             Mr. Nitesh Bansal, Advocate for the petitioner.

             Mr. Yogesh Putney, Sr. Standing Counsel with
             Mr. Vaibhav Gupta, Standing Counsel
             f the respondents/revenue.
             for
                  ***

SANJEEV PRAKASH SHARMA, J.

1. The petitioner-company
petitioner by way of this writ petition has sought

quashing of undated assessment order Annexure P/1, for the assessment year

2022-2023,
2023, passed under Section 143(3) of the Income Tax Act, 1961 (for

short ‘the Act’) and penalty notices Annexures P/2 and P/3 dated 04.04.2023

passed under Sections 270A and 271AAC of the Act and has further prayed

for quashing the consequential action,
action which has been taken under the said

order/notices.

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2. Learned senior counsel for the petitioner submits that the

impugned assessment order is liable to be set aside on various grounds. He

has invited attention to the provisions of Sections 143(3), 144A, 151 and

153D of the Act, to submit that the Assessing Officer in the case of the

present petitioner has not acted in accordance with the provisions of the Act.

It is his submission that the Assessing Officer who in his quasi judicial

capacity has to make the assessment on his independent application of mind

and there is no requirement in law of obtaining approval from his superior

officers before finalizing an order of assessment. It is stated that while there

exist provisions under the Act, wherein approval/recommendation of superior

authority has been stated to be prescribed like the provisions under Section

144A, Section 151 and 153D; but there is no such similar provision under

Section 143(3) of the Act.

3. It is his further submission that even such approval/

recommendation under the aforesaid provisions are justiciable and can be

challenged before the Court on the ground of; approval/recommendation

being not appropriate; granted mechanically or obtained from wrong

authority. However, where there is no provision, the order of assessment

would be vitiated in law if the Assessing Officer consults or seeks approval

of the assessment from his superior officers. It is his submission that in the

petitioner’s case, the Assessing Officer has mentioned of having consulted

three times his superior officers i.e. respondent No.2 and discussed the case

on 26.10.2023, 11.01.2024 and 14.03.2024 and thereafter passed the order

after due approval from him.

4. Carrying his submission further, learned senior counsel has

stated that the first show cause notice which was received by the assessee-

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petitioner is dated 11.03.2024, requiring the petitioner to submit its response

on 15.03.2024. He therefore, contends that the Assessing Officer arrived at

conclusion based upon the discussions with his superior officers. Before

reply to show cause was received, the respondent No.2 was never consulted

and therefore, the approval was mechanically granted by respondent No.2 to

the assessment order.

5. In response to the submission of the respondents relying on

CBDT circular dated 15.07.2022, it is submitted that Section 119 of the Act

only empowers CBDT to issue orders/instructions/directions for

administration of the Act and not interfering with the quasi judicial function

of the Assessing Officer or CIT (Appeals) or empowers it to issue beneficial

instructions/ directions relaxing the provisions in terms of Section 190(2)(A

to C). In the circumstances, he argues that the CBDT circular dated

15.07.2022, would be contrary to the provisions of Section 119 of the Act

proviso (a), as it requires the Assessing Officer to carry out assessment of an

assessee in a particular manner. It is his submission that the circular would

amount to interfere with the quasi judicial power to complete assessment by

the Assessing Officer and forces respondent No.1/Assessing Officer to

abdicate his quasi judicial function in favour of superior officers, which

would be impermissible in law.

6. The second limb of argument advanced by learned senior

counsel is with respect to the order of assessment being barred by limitation

as laid down for the AY: 2022-2023, in terms of Section 153 of the Act, as

the same has been issued after 31.03.2024 and uploaded on the e-filing

income tax portal only on 04.04.2024. The last date to make the impugned

assessment order in normal course would be on or before 31.03.2024 and no

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order of assessment could have been passed thereafter. In support thereof, he

has invited attention to Annexure P/20 and P/21, which are the screen shot of

e-filing portal as on 01.04.2024, reflecting the proceedings open while e-

filing portal screen shot of 04.04.2024, reflects of the passing of the

assessment order. No real time alert was received by the petitioner on or

before 01.04.2024. Further, submitted that no order was sent via email to the

petitioner. He refers to Rule 127 of the Income Tax Rules, CBDT notification

02/2016 and the intimation of the email address provided to the authorities in

terms of Rule 127(2)(b)(4). Document Annexure R/1, has also been referred

wherein the delivery status reflects ‘sending failed’, email ID ‘not specified’,

particulars of documents ‘not specified’ and assessment by tax payer on

04.04.2024.

7. The document Annexure P/22, has been referred to reflect that

the tax or return confirmation in email also shows there being no orders sent

prior to 04.04.2024. It is also submitted that there has been no order sent by

physical post and the penalty notices were issued only on 04.04.2024.

Learned counsel has also assailed the order on the ground of assessment

order not accompanied by form ITNS-150A which reflects that form ITNS-

150A although dated 31.01.2024, was issued 14.05.2024, DIN number refers

to FY: 2024-2025 and RTI response confirms that DIN of form ITNS-150A

was generated on 14.05.2024.

8. He has further invited attention to the assessment order which

reflects that it is undated and DIN number mentioned in the assessment order

and the demand notices are invalid which has been admitted by the revenue.

E-filing portal screen shots dated 15.05.2024, Annexure P/23, reflects two

DINs issued on PAN of the petitioner on 31.03.2024. The DIN number

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ITBA/COM/S/91/2023-24/1063787982(1) relates to intimation letter and

DIN ITBA/COM/M/17/2023-24/1063787900(1) relates to assessment order.

There is no separate DIN for demand notice. Annexure P/28, e-filing portal

screen shot dated 16.05.2024, reflects 3rd DIN shown to be issued on

31.03.2024, which relates to ITNS-150A. He therefore, submits that the

assessment order has never left the control of respondent No.1 on or before

01.04.2024 and thus, it has to be declared invalid and barred by limitation.

9. The third limb of argument advanced by learned senior counsel

is with regard to the assessment proceedings having been completed in

violation of the principles of natural justice. It is stated that a personal

hearing was specifically requested by the assessee-petitioner but the said

request was neither acceded to nor addressed in the impugned order by the

Assessing Officer. He submits that the Assessing Officer has thus pre-judged

his case based on ex parte documents which were never confronted to the

petitioner and were revealed only for the first time in the assessment order.

Learned counsel submits that so far as the assessment order is concerned, it is

based on a show cause notice issued on 11.03.2024, providing only four days

time to furnish reply, which was not sufficient and cannot be said to be in

consonance with the fundamental principles of natural justice.

10. In support of his contentions, learned senior counsel has placed

reliance on the following judgments:-

Anirudhsinhji Karansinhji Jadeja vs. State of Gujarat

[1995] 5 SCC 302, Noor Mohammad vs. Khurram Pasha [2022] 9 SCC

23, CIT vs. SPL Siddhartha Ltd. [2012] 345 ITR 223 (Del), Ghanshyam

K. Khabrani vs. ACIT [2012] 346 ITR 443 (Bom), CCE vs. Ratan

Melting & Wire Industries [2008] 13 SCC 1 (SC) [CB], S.B. Adityan vs.

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Income Tax Officer [1964] 51 ITR 453 (Mad), LML Ltd. vs. ACIT [1994]

205 ITR 585 (Mad), CIT vs. Barkelite Hylam Ltd. [1999] 237 ITR 392

(AP), Gujarat Gas Co. Ltd. vs. Jt. CIT [2000] 245 ITR 84 (Guj), CCE vs.

M.M. Rubber and Company AIR 1991 SC 2141, Government Wood

Works vs. State of Kerala [1988] 69 STC 62 (Ker), CIT vs. Rai Bahadur

Kishore Chand and Sons [2010] 1 taxmann.com 165 (P&H), Munjal

BCU Centre of Innovation and Entrepreneurship vs. CIT 2024: PHHC:

030865-DB and Suman Jeet Agarwal vs. ITO [2022] 449 ITR 517 (Del).

11. Learned counsel appearing for the respondent supports the order

passed by the Assessing Officer. He further submits that the power is

available to the CBDT to issue instructions to subordinate authorities and the

circular has been issued by the CBDT on 15.07.2022, which requires

respondent No.1/Assessing Officer to obtain approval from respondent No.2

prior to passing of the assessment order. The said circular issued by the

CBDT is valid and in accordance with the provisions of Section 119(2)(A) of

the Act and even otherwise, there cannot be any harm in the Assessing

Officer taking approval from his superiors for passing of assessment order.

He submits that no prejudice can be said to have been caused to the assessee-

petitioner on account of the same. The authorities cannot be said to be having

any malice as against the petitioner and to reach a final conclusion the

Assessing Officer’s action of consulting his superiors for the purpose of

issuing notice or for examining the concealment in return, cannot be said in

any manner to be unjustified nor it prejudices the case of the petitioners. It is

his submission that merely because there is no date mentioned in the order,

the order would not be vitiated in law.

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12. Learned counsel has further submitted that the order was

actually passed on 31.03.2024 and was delivered to the assessee

electronically through e-proceedings on 31.03.2024 at 8:26:39 pm. It was a

clerical mistake that the date was not mentioned in the assessment order.

However, the date of assessment was mentioned in the demand notice which

has been issued on a later date i.e. 04.04.2024. It is submitted that the date on

the demand notice has no relevance with the assessment order or the vice

versa.

13. He further submits that the department has two options to upload

assessment order either firstly to upload the scanned order through

assessment module on ITBA and secondly to upload the same through

common function module on ITBA. While uploading scanned assessment

order in assessment module of ITBA, system generated DIN, which has been

written manually on the assessment order bearing No.ITBA/AST/M/

143(3)/23-24/1063772490(1) and ITBA/AST/M/143(3)/2023-24/1063772472

(1), however, while submitting the order on system finally, due to technical

glitch-system error, assessment order and demand notice could not be

uploaded through system module system and the DIN so generated

mentioned in handwritten form on assessment and demand notice remained

unexecuted. It is submitted that the assessment order and demand notice were

communicated to the assessee through common function facility with DIN

No.ITBA/COM/S/91/2023-24/1063787982(1) and ITBA/COM/S/91//2023-

24/1063787900(1) and communicated to the assessee through the aforesaid

DINs at 08:26 pm on 31.03.2024. It is highlighted that the intimation sheet is

generated by system and the date is also automatically filled on it. The fact is

evident from the sheet itself, thus, the Assessing Officer has no role in it. The

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relevant sheet generated through ITBA contains DIN

No.ITBA/COM/S/91/2023-24/1063787982(1) and ITBA/COM/S/91//2023-

24/1063787900(1) and, therefore, it cannot be said that the orders were not

passed on 31.03.2024.

14. It is his assertion that the limitation as on 31.03.2024 is for

making of an order and not for the communication of the order, in terms of

the limitation prescribed under Section 153 of the Act. Learned counsel

submits that the issue is no more res-integra in view of the judgment passed

by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of 2022 (1) SCC 112, The

Commissioner of Income Tax, Chenni vs. Mohammed Meeran Shahul

Hameed, wherein, it has been held that the date of limitation has to be seen

on the date when the order has been made not the date when it has been

received or communicated. Learned counsel also relied on the judgment

passed by the Jharkhand High Court at Ranchi in Prakash Lal Khandelwal

vs. The Commissioner of Income Tax, Ranchi and others, WP(T)

No.1901 of 2022, decided on 21.02.2023, wherein the said judgment was

followed.

15. As regards not granting of personal hearing is concerned, he

submits that the petitioner was served with several notices before 11.03.2024,

but he did not respond to the same and only submitted his reply on

15.03.2024. Taking into consideration all his contentions, the order has been

passed and on facts he has also submitted that there is huge violation of tax

concealment which cannot be brushed aside on the ground of violation of

principles of natural justice. It is further submitted that there was no denial to

file further reply and while the petitioner did on 20.03.2024 and 22.03.2024,

and they have also been considered. It is submitted that the concept of

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personal hearing on specific request of the assessee is applicable in the case

of faceless scrutiny assessments only and the office of the DCIT, Central

Circle-I, being a part of the Central Charges, is exempted from the concept of

faceless scrutiny. It is stated that when the assessee had filed its replies, he

could have reached the office and sought personal hearing also which he did

not make and, therefore, it cannot be said that the order is vitiated on the

ground of violation of principles of natural justice.

16. It is further submitted that so far as the demand notices are

concerned, they were issued on 04.04.2024, but cannot be said to be beyond

limitation as they are separately governed and have to be necessarily passed

after the assessment. He has invited attention to Section 275 of the Act for

the said purpose.

17. We have considered the submissions and pleading placed before

us.

18. Before we deal with the facts of the case, it would be apposite to

quote relevant provisions of Section 119, 153 and 275:

Instructions to subordinate authorities.

119

(1) The Board may, from time to time, issue such orders,

instructions and directions to other income-tax authorities as it

may deem fit for the proper administration of this Act, and such

authorities and all other persons employed in the execution of

this Act shall observe and follow such orders, instructions and

directions of the Board:

Provided that no such orders, instructions or directions shall be

issued :-

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(a) so as to require any income-tax authority to make a

particular assessment or to dispose of a particular case in

a particular manner; or

(b) so as to interfere with the discretion of the [the Joint

Commissioner (Appeals) or] the [Commissioner (appeal]

in the exercise of his appellate functions.

(2) Without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing power:-

(a) the Board may, if it considers it necessary or expedient so to

do, for the purpose of proper and efficient management of the

work of assessment and collection of revenue, issue, from time to

time (whether by way of relaxation of any of the provisions of

sections 3[115P, 115S, 115WD, 115WE, 115WF, 115WG,

115WH, 115WJ, 115WK,] 4[139,] 143, 144, 147, 148, 154, 155

5[, 158BFA], 6[sub-section (1A) of section 201, sections 210,

211, 234A, 234B, 234C 7[, 234E]], 8[270A,] 271 9[, 271C,

271CA] and 273 or otherwise), general or special orders in

respect of 10[any class of incomes or fringe benefits] or class of

cases, setting forth directions or instructions (not being

prejudicial to assessees) as to the guidelines, principles or

procedures to be followed by other income- tax authorities in the

work relating to assessment or collection of revenue or the

initiation of proceedings for the imposition of penalties and any

such order may, if the Board is of opinion that it is necessary in

the public interest so to do, be published and circulated in the

prescribed manner for general information;

(b) xx xx

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Time limit for completion of assessment, reassessment and re-

computation.

153.

(1) No order of assessment shall be made under section 143 or

section 144 at any time after the expiry of twenty-one months

from the end of the assessment year in which the income was

first assessable.:

Provided: xx

Provided further: xx

Provided also: xx

Provided: xx

Provided further: xx

Provided also: xx

Provided also: xx

Provided: xx

Provided further : xx

Provided also: xx

Provided also: xx

Provided: xx

Provided further: xx

Provided : xx

Provided further: xx

Provided also: xx

Provided also: that in respect of an order of assessment relating

to the assessment year commencing on or after the 1st day of

April, 2022, the provisions of this sub-Section shall have effect,

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as if for the words ‘twenty-one months’, the words ‘twelve

months’ had been substituted.

Bar of limitation for imposing penalties.

275
2[(1)] No order imposing a penalty under this Chapter shall be

passed.

(a) In a case where the relevant assessment or other order is the

subject-matter of an appeal to the [Joint Commissioner

(Appeals) or to the Commissioner (Appeals) under Section 246]

[or section 246A] or an appeal to the Appellate Tribunal under

section 253, after the expiry of the financial year in which the

proceedings, in the course of which action for the imposition of

penalty has been initiated, are completed, or six months from the

end of the month in which the order of the (Joint Commissioner

(Appeals) or the Commissioner (Appeals) or, as the case may

be, the Appellate Tribunal is received by the [Principal Chief

Commissioner or Chief Commissioner] or [Principal

Commissioner or Commissioner], whichever period expires

later:

Provided : xx xx”

(b) xx xx

(c) xx xx

19. From the perusal of the aforesaid provisions, we find that the

limitation provided under Section 153(1) of the Act, for issuance of notice

and making of an order of assessment under Section 143 or 144 of the Act, is

only twelve months for the assessment year commencing on or after 1st day

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of April, 2022 from the end of assessment year in which the income was first

assessable. Thus, the period would end on 31.03.2024.

20. As regards Section 119 of the Act as noticed above, we find that

while Section 119(1) of the Act, restrains the Board from issuing any

instructions to subordinate authorities, which may lay down instructions of

such a nature requiring the Income Tax Authorities to make particular

assessment in a particular manner or to interfere with the discretion of the

Joint Commissioner and Commissioner (Appeals) while exercising their

appellate function. However, the Board would be within its powers to instruct

and lay down guidelines for efficient management of assessment work and

collection of revenue or issue guidelines/principles/procedure which are to be

followed by Income Tax Authorities for work relating to assessment. The

Circular dated 15.07.2022, issued by the CBDT relied upon by the

respondents directs the Assessing Officer to seek approval of the assessment

made by him under Section 143 or 144 of the Act from the Joint

Commissioner. The Circular dated 15.07.2022, cannot be objected to and

comes within the ambit of powers available to the CBDT as above.

21. Although, the approval can be taken from the Joint

Commissioner of the assessment order, the question arises that while

examining the return and conducting assessment, can the Assessing Officer

seek guidance or discuss the case with the Joint Commissioner and whether

his consultation with the Joint Commissioner would amount to abdication of

his powers. In Anirudhsinhji Karansinhji Jadeja case (supra), the Hon’ble

Supreme Court was examining the issue relating to the powers vested with

DSP by Section 20-A of the Terrorist and Disruptive Activities (Prevention)

Act, 1987 and has observed as under:-

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“11. The case against the appellants originally was registered

on 19th March, 1995 under the Arms Act. The DSP did not give

any prior approval on his own to record any information about

the commission of an offence under TADA. On the contrary, he

made a report to the Additional Chief Secretary and asked for

permission to proceed under TADA. Why? was it because he

was reluctant to exercise jurisdiction vested in him by the

provision of Section 20A (1)? This is a case of power conferred

upon one authority being really exercised by another. If a

statutory authority has been vested with jurisdiction, he has to

exercise it according to its own discretion. If the discretion is

exercised under the direction or in compliance with some higher

authority’s instruction, then it will be a case of failure to

exercise discretion altogether. In other words, the discretion

vested in the DSP in this case by Section 20A (1) was not

exercised by the DSP at all.

12. Reference may be made in this connection to Commissioner

of Police vs. Gordhandas Bhanji, 1952 SCR 135, in which the

action of Commissioner of Police in cancelling the permission

granted to the respondent for construction of cinema in Greater

Bombay at the behest of the State Government was not upheld,

as the concerned rules had conferred this power on the

Commissioner, because of which it was stated that the

Commissioner was bound to bear his own independent and

unfettered judgment and decide the matter for himself, instead of

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forwarding an order which another authority had purported to

pass.

13. It has been stated by Wade and Forsyth in ‘Administrative

Law’, 7th Edition at pages 358 and 359 under the heading

‘SURRENDER, ABDICATION, DICTATION’ and sub- heading

“Power in the wrong hands” as below:-

“Closely akin to delegation, and scarcely distinguishable from

it in some cases, is any arrangement by which a power

conferred upon one authority is in substance exercised by

another. The proper authority may share its power with some

one else, or may allow some one else to dictate to it by

declining to act without their consent or by submitting to their

wishes or instructions. The effect then is that the discretion

conferred by parliament is exercised, at least in part, by the

wrong authority, and the resulting decision is ultra vires and

void. So strict are the courts in applying this principle that

they condemn some administrative arrangements which must

seem quite natural and proper to those who make them…..”.

“Ministers and their departments have several times fallen

foul of the same rule, no doubt equally to their surprise….”.

14. The present was thus a clear case of exercise of power on

the basis of external dictation. That the dictation came on the

prayer of the DSP will not make any difference to the principle.

The DSP did not exercise the jurisdiction vested in him by the

statute and did not grant approval to the recording of

information under TADA in exercise of his discretion.”

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22. In SPL Siddhartha Ltd. case (supra), it was held that the

procedure laid down under the Income Tax Act, has to be strictly followed.

Thus, principally the law is settled as held in Nazir Ahmed v. King

Emproer1936 (BC) 253 (2), applying the principle of ‘taylor v. taylor’ Ch.D

(431), that ‘where a power is given to do a certain thing in a certain way, the

thing must be done in that way or not at all and that other methods of

performance are necessarily forbidden, applied to Judicial Officers making a

record under Section 164.’. Thus, as held in CIT vs. Anjum M.H.Ghaswala

& Ors.2002 (1) SCC 633, by the Constitutional Bench that ‘it is a normal

rule of construction that when a statue vests certain powers in a authority to

be exercised in a particular manner then the said authority has to exercise it

only in the manner provided in the statue itself. If that be so, since the

Commission cannot exercise the power of relaxation found in Section 119(2)

(a)in the manner provided therein it cannot invoke that power under Section

119(2)(a) to exercise the same in its judicial proceedings by following a

procedure contrary to that provided in sub-section (2) of Section 119.’

23. Section 116 of the Act, defines the Income Tax Authorities as

different and distinct authorities. Such different and distinct authorities have

to exercise its powers in accordance with law in specified circumstances.

Thus, the Assessing Officer would have to exercise its own discretion to

reach a conclusion and would not be influenced by any other officer. In view

thereto, we find force in the contention raised by the learned senior counsel

for the petitioner that the concerned Assessing Officer was influenced by the

consultation and discussion with his superior officers. In fact the order passed

by the Assessing Officer appears to have been already prepared even before

the reply was received as the consultations have been conducted on

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26.10.2023, 11.01.2024 and 14.03.2024 by the Assessing Officer as

mentioned by him in the order itself. Again after the reply was received and

the order was passed by the Assessing Officer, the same has been approved

by the Joint Commissioner. As such, we find that the Joint Commissioner has

in fact comprehensively and actively participated in the making of the

assessment order while his role was only limited to the approval of the

assessment order in terms of the CBDT Circular. Thus, we find the order to

be vitiated in law.

24. In view of the above, the assessment order cannot be result of an

independent application of mind and exercise of discretionary power by the

Assessing Officer in terms of Section 143(3) of the Act and but is an order

passed under the influence and directions of the superior officers. It is to be

noticed that the consultation with a superior officer would be akin to

directions of the superior. There is no room available for discretion where

consultation is sought from a superior officer while if a superior officer

consults his subordinates, the discretion continues to stay with him. He may

choose not to follow the advice of his subordinate but the opposite would be

untrue. We are, thus, of firm view that the order has been passed whereby the

Assessing Officer has abdicated his authority and, therefore, the order has

become vitiated in law.

25. The next aspect which requires to be examined is the contention

relating to the non-compliance of principles of natural justice.

26. While the learned counsel for the revenue contends that they

had sent several notices to the petitioner, which were deliberately ignored, we

find that the petitioner had conveyed and intimated the respondents of its

fresh email IDs and the notices issued to the petitioner under Section 142(1)

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of the Act, on 08.09.2023, 15.09.2023, 17.10.2023, 06.12.2023 and

19.12.2023, were never received as they were sent on a different email of the

Chartered Accountant who was no more working with the petitioner’s

company. The notices served dated 11.03.2024, was served on them on

13.03.2024 and the company has submitted its reply on 20.03.2024, wherein,

opportunity of personal hearing has been demanded. From the reply which

has come on record, it is apparent that the petitioner was not provided any

opportunity of personal hearing albeit the respondents have stated that it was

the responsibility of the petitioner to have approached and appeared before

the concerned authority and if they would have appeared, the authority would

have heard them personally.

27. The provision of providing personal hearing emanates from the

principles of natural justice ‘audi alteram partem’ and a person is required to

be given such an opportunity, so that, all the aspects which he/she wants to

convey, would be attended to. The caveat is such an opportunity must be

demanded. A presumption cannot be drawn that after a demand is made, the

person would have to himself appear without being provided any particular

date. In our opinion, the submissions advanced by the respondents, therefore,

are misconceived and we are unable to accept the contentions of the

respondents that it was the duty of the petitioner’s company to appear before

the concerned Assessing Officer after having filed its reply. We, therefore,

held that the Assessing Officer has failed to follow the basic principles of

natural justice while passing the impugned order and the petitioner was not

provided fair and reasonable opportunity to put up its defence and the order

passed is, therefore, liable to be struck down as illegal and arbitrary.

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28. The next contention raised before us is with regard to the order

of assessment being time barred. At the cost of repetition, we reiterate that

the last date for making the order of assessment was 31.03.2024. In M.M.

Rubber case (Supra), the Hon’ble Supreme Court was examining the then

provisions of the Income Tax Act, 1922, Section 33(A)(2) with reference to

right of revision provided to an aggrieved assessee and limitation provided

under Section 33(A)(a) to suo-moto call for record by the authority for

revising the order and observed as under:-

“12. It may be seen therefore, that, if an authority is authorised

to exercise a power or do an act affecting the rights of parties,

he shall exercise that power within the period of limitation

prescribed there for. The order or decision of such authority

comes into force or becomes operative or becomes an effective

order or decision on and from the date when it is signed by him.

The date of such order or decision is the date on which the order

or decision was passed or made: that is to say when he ceases to

have any authority to tear it off and draft a different order and

when he ceases to have any locuspaetentiae. Normally that

happens when the order or decision is made public or notified in

some form or when it can be said to have left his hand. The date

of communication of the order to the party whose rights are

affected is not the relevant date for purposes of determining

whether the power has been exercised within the prescribed

time.

13. So far as the party who is affected by the order or decision

for seeking his remedies against the same, he should be made

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aware of passing of such order. Therefore Courts have

uniformly laid down as a rule of law that for seeking the remedy

the limitation starts from the date on which the order was

communicated to him on the date on which it was pronounced or

published under such circumstances that the parties affected by

it have a reasonable opportunity of knowing of passing of the

order and what it contains, The knowledge of the party affected

by Such a decision, either actual or constructive is thus an

essential element which must be satisfied before the decision can

be said to have been concluded and binding on him. Otherwise

the party affected by it will have no means of obeying the order

or acting in conformity with it or of appealing against it or

otherwise having it set. This is based upon, as observed by

Rajamanner, CJ in Muthia Chettiar v. CIT, supra “a salutary

and just principle”. The application’ of this rule so far as the

aggrieved party is concerned is not dependant on the provisions

of the particular statute, but it is so under the general law.”

29. In Rai Bahadur Kishore Chand case (supra), the Division

Bench of this Court has observed as under:-

“5. We find no force in the contention raised by the learned

Counsel for the revenue. The basic question to be decided in this

case is “Whether the impugned assessment order was passed

within the statutory period of limitation upto 31-3-2004 or not

?” The Tribunal after perusing the evidence on record and

taking into account the non-production of assessment record

before the Bench has given a finding of fact that the impugned

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assessment order for the assessment year 2001-02 was passed

after the statutory time limit. The Tribunal has noted the fact

that the revenue was given more than 5 opportunities to produce

record of the Department to challenge the specific grounds of

appeal taken by the assessee to the effect that assessment order

dated 26-3-2004 was not served upon him within the statutory

period of limitation and as such the same is liable to be quashed

being passed after the statutory time limit and ultimately, the

Departmental Representative stated before the Tribunal that the

matter may be decided in the light of the facts on record of the

case. While dismissing the appeal of the revenue , the Tribunal

has given a categoric finding that no evidence has been adduced

by the Department to show that the impugned order dated 26-3-

2004 passed by the assessing officer was indeed passed before

the statutory time limit.”

30. The revenue before us has contended that the order which is

undated, was actually passed and made on 31.03.2024 and was also placed on

portal on 31.03.2024. In support of their contention, they further submitted

that the order of demand placed on portal along with order of assessment on

04.04.2024, mentions of the assessment order having been passed on

31.03.2024 and, therefore, it has taken pains to submit that actually the order

of assessment was made on 31.03.2024 and a presumption should be drawn

in their favour. We are unable to accept the contention raised by learned

counsel for the revenue that the orders were made on 31.03.2024 and

therefore, it is not relevant as to when they were communicated. Since there

is no date on the order, a presumption of the order having been issued on

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31.03.2024, cannot be made. It appears that the officers of the department

having noticed their folly, in order to save themselves from the question of

passing orders beyond limitation period (presuming it to be 31.03.2024),

mentioned of the orders being issued on 31.03.2024 in the demand notice.

31. The another contention raised on behalf of the revenue that since

the order was made on 31.03.2024, the same is in terms of the limitation

prescribed under Section 153 of the Act and the judgment passed by the

Hon’ble Supreme Court in Mohammed Meeran Shahul Hameed case

(supra) and the order cannot be set aside on that count, in our opinion, is

misconceived.

32. Firstly as noticed above, there is no date mentioned on the

assessment order, hence, it cannot be presumed that the order was made on

31.03.2024. We also notice that portal of the assessee was active as on

01.04.2024 and it reflected therein that no assessment has been made, as is

apparent from the screen shots placed on record by the petitioner which have

not been disputed by the respondents. While the assessment order is reflected

on portal on 04.04.024 in order to further verify, we ask the counsel for the

revenue to place on record the email sent by them to the petitioner on

31.03.2024, relating to having passed the assessment order but the revenue

filed evasive application, wherein details of dates when emails were sent

have been shown but from the chart placed before us along with the

application, it is apparent that no email was sent to the assessee containing

the assessment order on 31.03.2024. A flimsy attempt has been made to

cover up the mistake.

33. It is a fact that for covering one mistake you make more

mistakes one after the other. However, we are satisfied after examining all

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the documents placed before us that there has actually been no order made on

31.03.2024 and, therefore, the judgment passed by the Hon’ble Supreme

Court in the case of Mohammed Meeran Shahul Hameed case (supra),

would have no application and would not save the time barred order of

assessment. We also find that so far as the party who is effected by the order

or decision would only consider the limitation from the date it acquires the

knowledge and for him the limitation would start from the said date. Be that

as it may, since we have reached to the conclusion that order passed was not

made upto 31.03.2024, the period in terms of proviso added vide Finance

Act, 2022 w.e.f. 01.04.2022, will apply to the facts of the case and the order

is to be termed as time barred and beyond the period of limitation prescribed

therein.

34. In view of the aforesaid discussion, the order of assessment is

found to be non est and not sustainable in the eyes of law. Accordingly, order

of assessment is quashed and set aside. Consequences thereof shall follow.

Writ petition is allowed accordingly.

35. All pending misc. application(s) also stand dismissed.

(SANJEEV PRAKASH SHARMA)
JUDGE

(SANJAY VASHISTH)
JUDGE
07th March, 2025.

rajesh

1. Whether speaking/reasoned? : Yes/No

2. Whether reportable? : Yes/No

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