Y Vikranth Reddy vs State Of Andhra Pradesh on 7 March, 2025

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Andhra Pradesh High Court – Amravati

Y Vikranth Reddy vs State Of Andhra Pradesh on 7 March, 2025

Author: K Sreenivasa Reddy

Bench: K Sreenivasa Reddy

 HONOURABLE SRI JUSTICE K SREENIVASA REDDY

           CRIMINAL PETITION NO: 8912 OF 2024

ORDER:

This Criminal Petition, under Section 482 of the

Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (for short ‘the

BNSS’), has been filed on behalf of the petitioner/accused

No.1 to grant anticipatory bail in connection with Crime

No.30 of 2024 of CID PS., Mangalagiri.

2. A case has been registered against the

petitioner/accused No.1 and other accused for the

offences punishable under Sections 506, 384, 420, 109,

467, 120B read with 34 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860

(for short, ‘IPC‘) and Section 111 of the Bharatiya Nyaya

Sanhita, 2023 (for brevity ‘BNS’).

3. Pursuant to a report dated 02.12.2024 lodged

by 2nd respondent/defacto complainant, the subject crime

came to be registered. The allegations, in brief, are as

follows:

(a) M/s. Kakinada Seaports Limited (for short,

‘KSPL’) is a concessionaire from the Government of

Andhra Pradesh (for short, ‘GoAP’) vide Concession
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Agreement dated 19.03.1999, to carry on business of

Kakinada Deep Water Port (for short, ‘KDWP’). KSPL

made huge investments and developed KDWP. It became a

profit-making company. M/s. Kakinada SEZ Limited (for

short, ‘KSEZ’) acquired 8320 acres of land in various

villages around Kakinada for setting up of SEZ and the

Government of India also granted permission to set up

multiproduct SEZ. The shareholders in the said company

are M/s. Kakinada Infrastructure Holdings Private

Limited (for short, ‘KIHPL’), M/s. Veda Infra Products

(India) Private Limited and 2nd respondent/defacto

complainant in personal capacity, altogether holding

48.74% shares, and the rest of the shareholding was by

M/s. GMR SEZ and Ports Holdings Limited. KSEZ

borrowed about Rs.2,000 crores, by way of inter-corporate

deposits or sub-debts from GMR Group, for the purpose of

undertaking acquisition of land, development of

infrastructure, etc. As GMR Group has substantial

interest in addition to 51% of shareholding and to avoid

liabilities arising out of the debt and not been able to earn

any income from KSEZ, KVR Group desired to part with
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their shares, and after negotiations between GMG Group

and group of 2nd respondent/defacto complainant, it was

agreed that GMR would pay Rs.400 crores for acquisition

of his 48.74% of the shareholding and an agreement was

executed by the parties on 22.10.2019. KIHPL is a group

investment company, which holds 41.12% of shareholding

in KSPL and 48.74% (along with KVR Group), in KSEZ.

KIHPL is totally held by 2nd respondent and his family

members.

(b) After change of regime in GoAP in 2019 general

elections, KSPL was not receiving co-operation from the

Directors of the Port/AP Maritime Board in conduct of

operations. KSPL is paying 22% of gross earnings of the

company as revenue share to the State Government. The

company had been paying the revenue share to the GoAP

without any default. In addition to the calculations made

by the Company to arrive at the gross earnings, the GoAP

is also conducting audit of the revenues of the Company

for determining the gross revenue as per the Concession

Agreement. There was never substantial difference

between the figures arrived at and paid by the Company
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and the determination by the audit authorities of the

GoAP.

(c) While so, the KSPL received a Letter, dated

13.11.2019 from the GoAP, appointing M/s. PKF Sridhar

& Santhanam LLP (for short, ‘PKF’) for conducting special

audits for PPP Ports, and the KSPL was called upon to

furnish the entire data for the Financial Years ending

31.03.2015 to 31.03.2019, and the audit company called

for records of the company, visited port office and started

conducting the special audit. The GoAP vide Letter, dated

04.12.2019 informed the Port Company that it had

appointed M/s. KROLL India, a Bombay based consulting

firm, for conducting forensic audit in respect of KSPL and

directed the company to furnish all the required

documents, to enable smooth conduct of forensic audit.

Accordingly, the Company furnished all the records. A

team of said KROLL India came to Kakinada and obtained

requisite documents and also gained remote access to all

the financial operations of the Company for the period in

question. M/s. KROLL India completed the forensic audit

as directed by the GoAP and it was learnt that they
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submitted their report to the GoAP and subsequently it

was learnt that the GoAP had terminated the engagement

of M/s. KROLL India, Mumbai.

(d) It was learnt that they submitted a report to the

GoAP and at the time of closure of the audit operations,

the members of the audit party orally informed that they

found during the course of audit, huge accounting

irregularities by way of suppression of gross revenue and

thereby, the Government was deprived of revenue share to

the extent of about Rs.1,000.00 crores during the

Financial Year 2014-15 to 2018-19.

(e) In addition to the audits directed as against

KSPL, the PKF was also asked to verify the records and

transactions of various companies such as (i) United Port

Services Limited; (ii) Bothra Shipping Services Limited;

(iii) Sarat Chatarjee and Co. (Visakhapatnam) Private

Limited; (iv) Sembmarine Kakinada Limited and

(v) M/s.Belair Logistics Limited, and by a Letter, dated

03.03.2020, instructed KSPLs to enable a similar audit in

respect of the aforesaid companies, though the said

Companies have no contractual relationship with the
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Government and except providing various services to

KSPL and its customers, they have no privity of contract

with GoAP. But, nonetheless, such verification was

ordered only to coerce the Company to come to its terms.

In the course of proceedings, the auditors approached the

said Companies, obtained various records without any

authority and started raising various issues with them,

which were duly answered by the said Companies.

(f) With a view to further threaten the respondent

No.2 herein/de facto complainant and the Company, vide

Letter, dated 20.05.2020, the CEO of AP Maritime Board

had informed that the Government by Memo dated

07.04.2020 accepted the request of the auditors to

conduct special audit of KSPL for the years 2008-09 to

2013-14 and also for the year 2019-20 and the Company

was asked to cooperate with the above audit party. The

Company raised a protest against such audit and since

share purchase was completed, no further action was

taken in the matter.

(g) In the month of May, 2020, V.Vijaysai Reddy,

Member of Parliament was alleged to have called the
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respondent No.2 herein/de facto complainant and

informed that the petitioner herein/accused No.1 would

contact him in respect of KSPL, and he was asked to meet

him and explain the things; it was also informed that the

petitioner herein/accused No.1 son-in-law’s brother viz.

Sarath Chandra Reddy would also be present. In the

month end of May, 2020, as per the direction of the

petitioner herein/accused No.1 he went to the home of

petitioner herein/accused No.1 situated at Plot No.97,

Road No.10C, MLA, MPs Colony, Jubilee Hills, Hyderabad

and met the petitioner herein/accused No.1 and during

the course of conversation, he was informed that there

would be a demand of about Rs.1,000.00 crores from the

GoAP in respect of revenue share of the GoAP as per the

Special Audit Report. He was alleged to have tried to

explain that there were no irregularities and all this was

invented with the help of fabricating the record by the

auditors, who conducted the audit; it was further

informed that if a demand is raised by GoAP, the KSPL

would be in deep trouble and hence, he was asked to part

with 50% stake in KSPL and 48.74% in KSEZ, but he
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informed that he holds only 41.12% shares in KSPL

through KIHPL and holds only 20 shares in his personal

capacity. He also informed that KSPL is a profit- making

company, through which they were all gaining by way of

dividend. It was further informed that KSEZ holds large

land bank, which is valuable and there is no need for him

to part with his share holdings. Then, the petitioner

herein/accused No.1 was alleged to have informed that it

is not him trying to acquire shares, but they are being

acquired by one Y.S.Jagan Mohan Reddy and if he does

not agree for transfer of shares, there would be a spate of

criminal cases and vigilance inquiries leading to his arrest

and other family members. He was also alleged to have

informed that they would pay him a nominal amount of

for transfer of his shareholdings.

(h) The petitioner herein/ accused No.1 was alleged

to have informed that he is making arrangements for

executing a share transfer, agreements and the

respondent No.2 herein/de facto complainant was asked

to cooperate. He was also informed that M/s.Varuna Law

Associates LLP were appointed to prepare the requisite
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documentation and the said law firm made

correspondence with the office of the KSPL and KSEZ and

at that time, he learnt that they are also preparing a

Corporate Deposit Agreement, whereunder, they would

pay Rs.100.00 crores as deposit at the time of agreement.

At that time, he was not aware in whose favour the

agreements are being executed or who will pay the deposit

amount. During the course of preparation of the

agreements, they came to know that the shares in KSPL

and KSEZ are being sold to M/s. Aurobindo Realty and

Infrastructure Private limited (for short ‘Aurobindo’).

(i) On 24.06.2020, the respondent No.2 herein/de

facto complainant was alleged to have gone to the

residence of the petitioner herein/accused No.1 and at

that time, one Sarathchandra Reddy of Aurobino and

other persons were present along with counsels of Varuna

Law Firm. They were alleged to have given two agreements

i.e. (1) Share Purchase Agreement and (2) Deposit

Agreement. As per the Share Purchase Agreement, KIHPL

would transfer 41.12% of shares held by the aid Company

in KSPL in favour of Aurobindo. The Agreement does not
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mention the sale consideration amount and the sale price

will be determined by the merchant banker, to be

appointed by the purchaser. The other agreement relates

to a deposit agreement, whereunder, Aurobindo would

lend a sum of Rs.100.00 crores as an inter-corporate

deposit to KIHPL. The agreements contemplate that KIHPL

would offer the shareholdings held by it in KSPL by

executing a Share Pledge Agreement.

(j) There is no due diligence of the KSPL and the

purchaser was not aware of the financial strength of the

company and the respondent No.2 herein/de facto

complainant does not know the net asset value of the

Company and liabilities to determine the share purchase

price; that he was simply asked to sign the Share

Purchase Agreement and Deposit Agreement, on behalf of

KIHPL agreeing to sell the shares for an unspecified sum

and he has no other option and that itself demonstrates

that the said Share Purchase Agreement is nothing but a

product of fraud, cheating, extortion by use of fabricated

document; that later the deposit amount of Rs.100.00

crores was remitted by RTGS on 10.07.2020 in favour of
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KIHPL. He protested against the valuation since the same

does not represent true value of the shares, and the

valuation procedure adopted is only to comply with the

Income Tax Rules rather than arriving at the true value

based on the net assets value, the profits earned by the

company in the preceding years and the future earning

capacity of the company, and the value would be not less

than Rs.2,500 crores for 41.12% of shares. On that, A.1

stated that even payment of Rs.494 crores is only to

enable legitimate transfer of shares and reminded him of

the consequences of refusal i.e. arrest of him and his

family members, besides stalling his other business.

Hence, he had no other option except to sign the

agreement in the manner suggested by them. On

03.09.2020, an Addendum to the Share Purchase

Agreement was executed, signed by him, whereunder he

agreed to transfer 41.12% of shares in KSPL for a

consideration of Rs.494 crores, @ Rs.229.42 ps, per share

of Rs.10/-, and the purchaser paid Rs.100 crores already

as purchase consideration under deposit agreement, but

not as sale consideration of purchase of shares.
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Thereafter, petitioner/A.1 and Sarathchandra Reddy took

him to the Chief Minister, who did not listen to his protest

and asked to follow that is said by petitioner/A.1. The

balance amount of Rs.394 crores was paid to KIHPL on

09.02.2021 and thereupon necessary share transfer

documents were executed and accordingly shares were

transferred in favour of Aurobindo, which became

shareholder in place of KIHPL. The same is done in

harried manner, without obtaining approval of the lenders

i.e. Axis Bank and Bank of India Limited, and the lenders

objected the same and red-flagged the company, which

debars it from approaching any banker for credit facilities.

At the instance of petitioner/A.1, GoAP issued

G.O.Ms.No.17, Infrastructure and Investments (Ports)

Department, dated 24.12.2020, approving for transfer of

shares in favour of Aurobindo. The bargain was not

limited to KSPL, but also in respect of shareholding of

KSEZ. He was called again to sign agreement in respect

of KSEZ on 12.10.2020 and the consideration was fixed at

Rs.12 crores, which was paid by way of cheque dated

31.03.2021, and on 03.07.2021, transfer of shares was
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completed and Aurobindo became shareholder in KSEZ to

the extent of 48.74% shares for just Rs.12.00 crores. The

shareholding of 48.74% was offered for sale to GMR for a

sum of Rs.400 crores, but he was paid only Rs.12.00

crores. Later, Aurobindo acquired the balance of stake of

GMR group and thereby it became 100% share holder in

KSEZ. By virtue of transfer of KSEZ, M/s. Kakinada

Gateway Ports Limited, which is subsidiary of KSEZ, also

stood transferred to Aurobindo by virtue of its acquisition

of KSEZ. The share sale and purchase agreement

between his group and Aurobindo is a part of fraud,

coercion based on fabricated document and employed by

petitioner/A.1 in collusion with Aurobindo. Hence, the

report.

4. Learned senior counsel Sri T.Niranjan Reddy,

appearing on behalf of Sri G.Venkat Reddy, learned

counsel for the petitioner submitted that the petitioner is

nothing to do with the alleged offences, and he, being son

of a sitting Member of Parliament (Rajya Sabha), and a

close relative of the then Chief Minister of Andhra
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Pradesh, has been falsely implicated in the present case

with an ulterior motive. The learned senior counsel

further submitted that there is inordinate delay of four

years and six months in lodging the present report from

the alleged period of offence, and the delay raises any

amount of doubt and the report is an after-thought,

influenced by extraneous considerations, including

political motives.

The learned senior counsel further submitted that

on a perusal of the report, it goes to show that Auditors,

including M/s. PKF Sridhar & Santhanam LLP (for short,

‘PKF’) and M/s. KROLL India, were accused of fabricating

reports by alleging revenue suppression, however, 2nd

respondent/defacto complainant acknowledges that the

final audit findings, reducing the revenue short fall to

Rs.9.03 crores, were accepted by KSPL; that there is

contradiction in validating their conclusions and on the

other hand accusing the auditors would certainly affect

the credibility of accusations. The learned senior counsel

further submitted that GMR group initially agreed to

purchase the shares at a much higher valuation, but it
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does not explain as to why the said agreement was not

pursued; that it is further not clarified whether the

agreement with GMR was abandoned due to the alleged

coercion, and this aspect would create any amount of

ambiguity as to the defacto complainant’s assertion that

the transaction with Aurobindo was forced upon him.

The learned senior counsel further submits that the

allegation is that the defacto complainant had consistently

paid revenue share to the GoAP without any discrepancies

as verified by regular auditors, and at the same time, it is

alleged that the accused threatened him by citing

fabrication of documents and demanded Rs.1,000 crores

for revenue shortfalls. According to him, these two

assertions are self-contradictory. The learned senior

counsel further submits that the defacto complainant

claims that his shares were worth Rs.2500 crores, yet he

also acknowledges that under an agreement with GMR,

the valuation of 48.74% shares was only Rs.400 crores,

and these two inconsistencies in the valuation figures lack

logical or factual basis. According to the learned senior

counsel, if really the worth of the shares was Rs.2500
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crores, there is no reason as to why the defacto

complainant negotiated with GMR at a much lower

valuation. According to him, the glaring inconsistency

demonstrates lack of coherence in the report.

The learned senior counsel further submitted that

an offence punishable under Section 111 BNS would not

be applicable to the petitioner herein. According to him,

the said Section addresses serious and repeat offences

that threaten public safety and order. He relied on a

decision in Ali Akbar v. State of Kerala rep. by Public

Prosecutor & another1.

The learned senior counsel also relied on decisions –

(i) in Siddharam Satlingappa Mhetre v. State of

Maharashtra & others,2 wherein it is held thus:

(paragraph 8)

“8. Section 438 of the Code of Criminal Procedure,
1973 reads as under:

“438. Direction for grant of bail to person
apprehending arrest.–(1) Where any person has
reason to believe that he may be arrested on
accusation of having committed a non-bailable
offence, he may apply to the High Court or the
Court of Session for a direction under this section

1
2024 SCC OnLine Ker 4689
2
(2011) 1 SCC 694
17

that in the event of such arrest he shall be released
on bail; and that court may, after taking into
consideration, inter alia, the following factors,
namely:

(i) the nature and gravity of the accusation;

(ii) the antecedents of the applicant including the
fact as to whether he has previously undergone
imprisonment on conviction by a court in respect
of any cognizable offence;

(iii) the possibility of the applicant to flee from
justice; and

(iv) where the accusation has been made with the
object of injuring or humiliating the applicant by
having him so arrested,

either reject the application forthwith or issue an
interim order for the grant of anticipatory bail:

Provided that, where the High Court or, as the case
may be, the Court of Session, has not passed any
interim order under this sub-section or has
rejected the application for grant of anticipatory
bail, it shall be open to an officer in charge of a
police station to arrest, without warrant the
applicant on the basis of the accusation
apprehended in such application.

(1-A) Where the court grants an interim order
under sub-section (1), it shall forthwith cause a
notice being not less than seven days notice,
together with a copy of such order to be served on
the Public Prosecutor and the Superintendent of
Police, with a view to give the Public Prosecutor a
reasonable opportunity of being heard when the
application shall be finally heard by the court.

(1-B) The presence of the applicant seeking
anticipatory bail shall be obligatory at the time of
final hearing of the application and passing of final
order by the court, if on an application made to it
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by the Public Prosecutor, the court considers such
presence necessary in the interest of justice.

(2) When the High Court or the Court of Session
makes a direction under sub-section (1), it may
include such conditions in such directions in the
light of the facts of the particular case, as it may
think fit, including–

(i) a condition that the person shall make himself
available for interrogation by a police officer as and
when required;

(ii) a condition that the person shall not, directly or
indirectly, make any inducement, threat or
promise to any person acquainted with the facts of
the case so as to dissuade him from disclosing
such facts to the court or to any police officer;

(iii) a condition that the person shall not leave
India without the previous permission of the court;

(iv) such other condition as may be imposed under
sub-section (3) of Section 437, as if the bail were
granted under that section.

(3) If such person is thereafter arrested without
warrant by an officer in charge of a police station
on such accusation, and is prepared either at the
time of arrest or at any time while in the custody of
such officer to give bail, he shall be released on
bail; and if a Magistrate taking cognizance of such
offence decides that a warrant should issue in the
first instance against that person, he shall issue a
bailable warrant in conformity with the direction of
the court under sub-section (1).”

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and (ii) in Shri Gurbaksh Singh Sibbia & others v.

State of Punjab3, wherein it is held thus: (paragraphs 26

and 31)

“26. We find a great deal of substance in Mr
Tarkunde’s submission that since denial of bail
amounts to deprivation of personal liberty, the
court should lean against the imposition of
unnecessary restrictions on the scope of Section
438
, especially when no such restrictions have
been imposed by the legislature in the terms of
that section. Section 438 is a procedural provision
which is concerned with the personal liberty of the
individual, who is entitled to the benefit of the
presumption of innocence since he is not, on the
date of his application for anticipatory bail,
convicted of the offence in respect of which he
seeks bail. An over-generous infusion of
constraints and conditions which are not to be
found in Section 438 can make its provisions
constitutionally vulnerable since the right to
personal freedom cannot be made to depend on
compliance with unreasonable restrictions. The
beneficent provision contained in Section 438 must
be saved, not jettisoned. No doubt can linger after
the decision in Maneka Gandhi [Maneka Gandhi v.
Union of India
, (1978) 1 SCC 248] , that in order to
meet the challenge of Article 21 of the
Constitution, the procedure established by law for
depriving a person of his liberty must be fair, just
and reasonable. Section 438, in the form in which
it is conceived by the legislature, is open to no
exception on the ground that it prescribes a
procedure which is unjust or unfair. We ought, at
all costs, to avoid throwing it open to a
Constitutional challenge by reading words in it
which are not to be found therein.

31. In regard to anticipatory bail, if the proposed
accusation appears to stem not from motives of

3
(1980) 2 SCC 565
20

furthering the ends of justice but from some
ulterior motive, the object being to injure and
humiliate the applicant by having him arrested, a
direction for the release of the applicant on bail in
the event of his arrest would generally be made. On
the other hand, if it appears likely, considering the
antecedents of the applicant, that taking advantage
of the order of anticipatory bail he will flee from
justice, such an order would not be made. But the
converse of these propositions is not necessarily
true. That is to say, it cannot be laid down as an
inexorable rule that anticipatory bail cannot be
granted unless the proposed accusation appears to
be actuated by mala fides; and, equally, that
anticipatory bail must be granted if there is no fear
that the applicant will abscond. There are several
other considerations, too numerous to enumerate,
the combined effect of which must weigh with the
court while granting or rejecting anticipatory bail.
The nature and seriousness of the proposed
charges, the context of the events likely to lead to
the making of the charges, a reasonable possibility
of the applicant’s presence not being secured at the
trial, a reasonable apprehension that witnesses will
be tampered with and “the larger interests of the
public or the State” are some of the considerations
which the court has to keep in mind while deciding
an application for anticipatory bail. The relevance
of these considerations was pointed out in State v.
Captain Jagjit Singh
[AIR 1962 SC 253 : (1962) 3
SCR 622 : (1962) 1 Cri LJ 216] , which, though,
was a case under the old Section 498 which
corresponds to the present Section 439 of the
Code. It is of paramount consideration to
remember that the freedom of the individual is as
necessary for the survival of the society as it is for
the egoistic purposes of the individual. A person
seeking anticipatory bail is still a free man entitled
to the presumption of innocence. He is willing to
submit to restraints on his freedom, by the
acceptance of conditions which the court may
think fit to impose, in consideration of the
assurance that if arrested, he shall be enlarged on
bail.”

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Hence, he prays to grant anticipatory bail to the

petitioner/A.1.

5. On the other hand, learned Advocate General

appearing on behalf of the respondent-State contended

that the petitioner herein played a pivotal role and entered

into conspiracy with co-accused in undervalued transfer

of shares from KSPL and KSEZ to A.5. According to the

learned Advocate General, it is the petitioner, who

summoned the defacto complainant, to his house, and by

producing fabricated document whereby liability against

KSPL to a tune of Rs.1,000 crores, was identified in

government special audits, the petitioner pressurized the

defacto complainant to relinquish his 41.12% shares in

KSPL and 48.74% shares in KSEZ by threatening that he

would take legal action, initiate criminal cases and cause

personal harm if he refuses to transfer the shares as

demanded by him.

The learned Advocate General further submitted that

the accused presented fabricated report dated 30.03.2019

to the Government that KSPL caused loss to the
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Government to the tune of Rs.965.65 crores, and later,

the defacto complainant agreed to sell the shares to A.5

because of the immense pressure, and after receiving the

entire shares, A.5 again presented a revised report by

using the government mechanism dated 20.07.2023 to

the Government which shows the drastic reduction of loss

to the Government to a tune of Rs.9.03 crores. The

learned Advocate General, after taking this Court to the

accusations contained in the report, submitted that in

view of the gravity of the offences, it is essential that

custodial interrogation of the petitioner is necessary.

Hence, he prayed to dismiss the present petition.

6. Learned senior counsel Sri Posani

Venkateswarlu, appearing on behalf of Sri Javvadi Sarath

Chandra, learned counsel for 2nd respondent/defacto

complainant, concurred with the submissions made by

the learned Advocate General and further submitted that

a prima facie case is made as against the petitioner herein

as he, in collusion and conspiracy with A.4, brought into

existence a fabricated document, and by virtue of the
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same, it can be safely inferred that an offence punishable

under Section 467 IPC would attract as against the

petitioner.

7. Heard and perused the record.

8. KSPL is a company registered under the

provisions of the Companies Act and it is a concessionaire

from the GoAP, to carry on business of KDWP. The

company and the GoAP entered into a Concession

Agreement dated 19.03.1999. According to the defacto

complainant, the company made huge investments and

developed KDWP and became a profit-making company.

The total shareholdings of the company are 52,412,239

out of which the defacto complainant possesses 20

shares. The company is being managed by experts in the

field, on professional management lines. The company

made profits from FYs 2014-15 to 2019-2020.

9. KSEZ is a company registered under the

provisions of the Companies Act in the year 2003. KSEZ

acquired 8320 acres of land in Ponnada, Mulapeta and

Ramannapeta villages around Kakinada for setting up of
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SEZ and the Government of India also granted permission

to set up multiproduct SEZ. The shareholders in the said

company are M/s. Kakinada Infrastructure Holdings

Private Limited (for short, ‘KIHPL’), M/s. Veda Infra

Products (India) Private Limited and 2nd respondent/

defacto complainant in personal capacity, altogether

holding 48.74% shares, and the rest of the shareholding

was by M/s. GMR SEZ and Ports Holdings Limited. KSEZ

borrowed about Rs.2000 crores, by way of inter-corporate

deposits or sub-debts from GMR Group, for the purpose of

undertaking acquisition of land, development of

infrastructure, etc. As GMR Group has substantial

interest in addition to 51% of shareholding and to avoid

liabilities arising out of the debt and not been able to earn

any income from KSEZ, KVR Group desired to part with

their shares, and after negotiations between GMR Group

and group of 2nd respondent/defacto complainant, it was

agreed that GMR would pay Rs.400 crores for acquisition

of his 48.74% of the shareholding and an agreement was

executed by the parties on 22.10.2019.

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10. In the year 2019, after the General Elections,

Sri Y.S.Jagan Mohan Reddy became the Chief Minister of

the State of Andhra Pradesh. KSPL was not receiving co-

operation from the Directors of the Port/AP Maritime

Board in conduct of operations. The accusation against

the petitioner/A.1 and others is that on 13.11.2019, the

GoAP appointed A.4 for conducting special audits for PPP

Ports, and the KSPL was called upon to furnish the entire

data for the Financial Years ending 31.03.2015 to

31.03.2019. On 04.12.2019, the GoAP hired M/s. KROLL

India, a Bombay based consulting firm, for conducting

forensic audit in respect of KSPL. According to A.4, huge

accounting irregularities were found by way of

suppression of gross revenue and thereby depriving the

government revenue share to a tune of Rs.1,000 crores

during the Financial Years 2014-15 to 2018-19. It is

further alleged that the petitioner, in collusion with other

accused, forcibly made the petitioner to transfer 41.12%

share in KSPL for Rs.494.00 crores and 48.74% share in

KSEZ for Rs.12.00 crores, to A.5. It is further alleged by

the defacto complainant that the true market value of the
26

same, being approximately Rs.2500 crores and Rs.1109

crores. The main accusation as against the petitioner is

that he acted as a principal intermediary, causing threats

on behalf of other accused. It is alleged that the petitioner

threatened the defacto complainant in such a way that

refusal to accept the demand would result in a spate of

criminal cases, vigilance inquiries, arrests and

harassment of him and his family.

11. According to the learned senior counsel Sri

T.Niranjan Reddy appearing for the petitioner, the

petitioner is nothing to do with the alleged transactions.

The only accusation that has been made as against the

petitioner is that he is alleged to have threatened the

defacto complainant about 4 ½ years prior to lodging the

report. Even according to the said accusation, no offence

would be made out as against the petitioner, as alleged by

the defacto complainant.

12. Insofar as KSPL is concerned, A.5 appears to

have purchased shares for a sum of Rs.494.00 crores in

the year 2021. According to defacto complainant, value of
27

the 41.12% shares would be not less than Rs.2500 crores.

In order to come to such a conclusion, there is absolutely

no evidence that is forthcoming, as to how the value could

be fixed at Rs.2500 crores. Irrespective of the said fact,

the transaction is between the defacto complainant and

A.5 and there is absolutely no accusation as against the

petitioner that by virtue of the said transaction, the

petitioner has been monetarily benefited. It is pertinent to

mention here that the defacto complainant came to the

conclusion, basing on the report submitted by one M/s.

Manohar Choudhary and Associates, Chartered

Accountants and the equity shares were valued on

31.03.2020. The defacto complainant is not disputing

the share value fixed, but is claiming that the value of the

shares would be around Rs.2500 crores.

13. At this stage, the learned Advocate General

submitted that the petitioner, in collusion and conspiracy

with A.5, inflated the figures to a tune of Rs.1000 crores

and by virtue of the same, he is said to have threatened

the defacto complainant. To come to such a conclusion, it
28

is essential that there should be a consensus ad idem

between the petitioner and A.4. This Court perused the

contents of the police report. Nowhere it is alleged that

the petitioner had a meeting with A.4 or as to when they

met and no specific date has been mentioned. Apart

from the same, when the petitioner is not a beneficiary in

the aforesaid transactions, prima facie question of

petitioner inflating the figures, as alleged, in collusion

with A.4, does not arise.

14. In respect of KSEZ, it is alleged that there was

an agreement for selling 48.74% of shares of KSEZ to

GMR for Rs.400 crores, whereas the same has been

knocked away by A.5 for Rs.12.00 crores. The learned

senior counsel appearing on behalf of the petitioner

submits that the shares in KSEZ were sold along with

debt to GMR, and the total value, including the debt, was

determined at Rs.1684 crores. The learned senior counsel

further submitted that the petitioner is no way connected

with the entire transaction of the audit report. He further

stated that on 20.04.2021, a letter was addressed by the
29

Chief Financial Officer of the KSPL and the same would

clinchingly establish that the said letter was addressed by

the Chief Financial Officer for reduction of the

quantification from Rs.965 crores to Rs.9.03 crores.

15. This Court perused the entire record. The

accusation as against the petitioner that he is alleged to

have inflated the figures in the audit report in collusion

with A.4 and by virtue of the same, he is said to have

threatened the defacto complainant. Except the said

accusation, it is not a case of the prosecution that

because of the same, the petitioner has been benefited.

16. The learned Advocate General submitted that

the accusation is that the petitioner, along with A.4, is

alleged to have made a false document and the said

document has been prepared by A.4 in collusion with the

petitioner, which is punishable under Section 467 IPC.

According to him, the petitioner, along with A.4, inflated

the figures and by virtue of the same, the petitioner

threatened the defacto complainant to part with the

shares.

30

17. On this aspect, the learned senior counsel Sri

Posani Venkateswarlu, appearing on behalf of 2nd

respondent/defacto complainant relied on a decision in

Mohammed Ibrahim & others v. State of Bihar & another,4

wherein it is held thus: (paragraphs 13 and 14)

“13. The condition precedent for an offence under
Sections 467 and 471 is forgery. The condition
precedent for forgery is making a false document
(or false electronic record or part thereof). This case
does not relate to any false electronic record.
Therefore, the question is whether the first
accused, in executing and registering the two sale
deeds purporting to sell a property (even if it is
assumed that it did not belong to him), can be said
to have made and executed false documents, in
collusion with the other accused.

14. An analysis of Section 464 of the Penal Code
shows that it divides false documents into three
categories:

1. The first is where a person dishonestly or
fraudulently makes or executes a document with
the intention of causing it to be believed that such
document was made or executed by some other
person, or by the authority of some other person,
by whom or by whose authority he knows it was
not made or executed.

2. The second is where a person dishonestly or
fraudulently, by cancellation or otherwise, alters a
document in any material part, without lawful
authority, after it has been made or executed by
either himself or any other person.

3. The third is where a person dishonestly or
fraudulently causes any person to sign, execute or

4
(2009) 8 SCC 751
31

alter a document knowing that such person could
not by reason of (a) unsoundness of mind; or (b)
intoxication; or (c) deception practised upon him,
know the contents of the document or the nature
of the alteration.

In short, a person is said to have made a “false
document”, if (i) he made or executed a document
claiming to be someone else or authorized by
someone else; or (ii) he altered or tampered a
document; or (iii) he obtained a document by
practising deception, or from a person not in
control of his senses.”

The learned senior counsel submitted, by relying on

the provision Section 464 IPC, that a case would be made

out against the petitioner for the offence punishable under

Section 467 IPC.

18. Section 467 IPC deals with ‘forgery of valuable

security, will, etc.’. According to the said Section,

whoever forges a document which purports to be a

valuable security or a will, or an authority to adopt a son,

or which purports to give authority to any person to make

or transfer any valuable security, or to receive the

principal, interest or dividends thereon, or to receive or

deliver any money, movable property, or valuable security,

or any document purporting to be an acquittance or
32

receipt acknowledging the payment of money, or an

acquittance or receipt for the delivery of any movable

property or valuable security, shall be punished with the

sentence mentioned therein. Section 463 IPC defines

‘forgery’. Section 464 IPC deals with ‘making a false

document’. A person is said to have made a ‘false

document’, if he made or executed a document claiming to

be someone else or authorized by some else or he altered

or tampered a document, etc.

19. It is pertinent to mention here that it is the

case of the defacto complainant that the said report was

prepared by the Auditor himself. In such a case, whether

the report has been brought into existence as authorized

by someone else, is not the accusation that has been

made as against the petitioner herein. Prima facie, the

aforesaid provision would not be applicable to the

petitioner herein because of the reason that there is no

allegation of either tampering or altering of the Auditor’s

report nor the said report has been obtained by deception.

When once the defacto complainant categorically stated in
33

the report that it is the Auditor, who prepared the report,

the question of forgery would not arise. In order to

attract the offence under Section 464 IPC, it is imperative

that a false document is made and it is the accused

person who is the maker of the same. It is not the case of

either the prosecution or the defacto complainant that the

said document has been forged. In the absence of it, it

can safely be inferred that prima facie the petitioner is not

liable for the offence of forgery or preparing a false

document. In view of the said reasons, the aforesaid

contention raised by the learned senior counsel is not

sustainable.

20. It is the further submission of the learned

senior counsel appearing for 2nd respondent/defacto

complainant that a preliminary inquiry was conducted by

police basing on the report given by 2nd respondent/

defacto complainant during September, 2024. A perusal

of the First Information Report and the report lodged by

2nd respondent/defacto complainant, would clearly

establish that the report was lodged to police on
34

02.12.2024. Prior to 2.12.2024, no complaint was

pending with the police. It is not known as to how the

police would conduct a preliminary inquiry without there

being any complaint. This Court is of the opinion that

when once the report was lodged to police at a belated

stage i.e. after lapse of 4 ½ years, police are supposed to

conduct a preliminary inquiry. As rightly contended by

the learned senior counsel appearing on behalf of the

petitioner, without there being a report before police,

police conducting a preliminary inquiry, as contended on

behalf of 2nd respondent/defacto complainant, throws any

amount of doubt with regard to the way the investigation

has been carried on.

21. To sum up, right from Shri Gurbaksh Singh

Sibbia & others v. State of Punjab case (3 supra) to

Satender Kumar Antil v. CBI 5 case, the Hon’ble Supreme

Court categorically held that the beneficial provision

contained in Section 438 CrPC must be saved but not

jettisoned. It is of paramount consideration to remember

that the freedom of the individual is as necessary for the
5
(2024) 9 SCC 198
35

survival of the society as it is for the egoistic purposes of

the individual.

22. The only accusation that has been made as

against the petitioner is that he is alleged to have

threatened the defacto complainant and by virtue of the

same, shares have been transferred to A.5 at a throw

away price. The present report has been filed after lapse

of 4 ½ years of the alleged threat.

23. Learned senior counsel appearing on behalf of

the petitioner submitted that he has reliably learnt

through papers that A.5 transferred the said shares in

favour of the defacto complainant. The learned senior

counsel Sri Posani Venkateswarlu, appearing on behalf of

2nd respondent/defacto complainant concurred with the

said submission made by the learned senior counsel

appearing on behalf of the petitioner. Apart from the

same, quite surprisingly, A.5 has not filed any

anticipatory bail application before this Court. In respect

of A.4, a quash petition has been filed by A.4 before this

Court and this Court was given to understand that an

order has been passed by this Court directing not to take
36

any coercive steps as against A.4. The alleged accusation

relates to an incident occurred 4 ½ years back and there

is no plausible explanation offered, as to why so much of

delay had occurred. The explanation offered for the delay

in lodging the report is that because of threat perception

to the defacto complainant, he could not file the report

within reasonable time, and now, as regime has changed,

he preferred the present report on 02.12.2024. This

argument cannot be accepted for the reason that the

defacto complainant is also one of the top notch business

persons, and if he is threatened, there is no reason as to

why he has not filed any private complaint before the

Court. There is absolutely no explanation for the same.

The petitioner is son of a Member of Parliament (Rajya

Sabha). There is no flight risk. The question of the

petitioner absconding does not arise as he has fixed

abode. In view of the aforesaid facts and circumstances,

this Court is inclined to provide pre-arrest protection to

the petitioner, however, on certain conditions.
37

24. Therefore, in the event of his arrest in the

aforesaid crime, the petitioner shall be released on bail in

his executing a personal bond for a sum of Rs.25,000/-

with two sureties each for the like sum, to the satisfaction

of the arresting officials.

The petitioner shall not, directly or indirectly, make

any inducement, threat or promise to any person

acquainted with the facts of the case so as to dissuade

him from disclosing such facts to the Court or to any

police officer.

The petitioner shall co-operate with the investigating

agency and attend before it whenever called.

25. Accordingly, the Criminal Petition is allowed.

As a sequel, miscellaneous petitions pending, if any,

shall stand closed.

___________________________ __
JUSTICE K. SREENIVASA REDDY
07.03.2025.

DRK
38

HONOURABLE SRI JUSTICE K SREENIVASA REDDY

CRIMINAL PETITION NO: 8912 OF 2024

07.03.2025
DRK



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